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Boundary of a generalized rectangle has Jordan content 0


Jordan Content of Unit Sphere in $mathbbR^3$Content $0$ implies boundary has content $0$Jordan Content of the set $1, frac12, frac14, frac18, … $?Showing a set has Jordan contentHow would I show that an open ball is a Jordan Domain?For a set having content zero/measure zero, how can the sum of the volumes of the cover be less than any arbitrary number?Show that the set $1/n_n=1^infty$ ⊆ ℝ has Jordan measure zero (content zero)Lipschitz function to $mathbbR^3$ on unit square in $mathbbR^2$ has zero contentIs the function which calculates the volume of a rectangle an additive set function?How $textvol (I) - textvol (J) < epsilon$?













0












$begingroup$



Show that the boundary of a generalized rectangle has Jordan content
0.




My attempt:
Let $U$ be a generalized rectangle, $U = I_1*...*I_n$, where $I_i = [a_i,b_i]$. I tried to show that $I_1$ has Jordan content 0:
Let $R=[a_1,b_1]*[-fracepsilon4(b_1-a_1),fracepsilon4(b_1-a_1)].$ Then $I_1 subset R$ and $vol(R)=fracepsilon2<epsilon$, so $I_1$ has Jordan content 0. (Is this correct?)

But I don't know how to use this to extend to the generalized rectangle.
Am I thinking in the right direction, and how to extend this to show that boundary of U has Jordan content 0?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$



    Show that the boundary of a generalized rectangle has Jordan content
    0.




    My attempt:
    Let $U$ be a generalized rectangle, $U = I_1*...*I_n$, where $I_i = [a_i,b_i]$. I tried to show that $I_1$ has Jordan content 0:
    Let $R=[a_1,b_1]*[-fracepsilon4(b_1-a_1),fracepsilon4(b_1-a_1)].$ Then $I_1 subset R$ and $vol(R)=fracepsilon2<epsilon$, so $I_1$ has Jordan content 0. (Is this correct?)

    But I don't know how to use this to extend to the generalized rectangle.
    Am I thinking in the right direction, and how to extend this to show that boundary of U has Jordan content 0?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0


      1



      $begingroup$



      Show that the boundary of a generalized rectangle has Jordan content
      0.




      My attempt:
      Let $U$ be a generalized rectangle, $U = I_1*...*I_n$, where $I_i = [a_i,b_i]$. I tried to show that $I_1$ has Jordan content 0:
      Let $R=[a_1,b_1]*[-fracepsilon4(b_1-a_1),fracepsilon4(b_1-a_1)].$ Then $I_1 subset R$ and $vol(R)=fracepsilon2<epsilon$, so $I_1$ has Jordan content 0. (Is this correct?)

      But I don't know how to use this to extend to the generalized rectangle.
      Am I thinking in the right direction, and how to extend this to show that boundary of U has Jordan content 0?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$





      Show that the boundary of a generalized rectangle has Jordan content
      0.




      My attempt:
      Let $U$ be a generalized rectangle, $U = I_1*...*I_n$, where $I_i = [a_i,b_i]$. I tried to show that $I_1$ has Jordan content 0:
      Let $R=[a_1,b_1]*[-fracepsilon4(b_1-a_1),fracepsilon4(b_1-a_1)].$ Then $I_1 subset R$ and $vol(R)=fracepsilon2<epsilon$, so $I_1$ has Jordan content 0. (Is this correct?)

      But I don't know how to use this to extend to the generalized rectangle.
      Am I thinking in the right direction, and how to extend this to show that boundary of U has Jordan content 0?







      real-analysis






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 21 at 18:58









      dxdydzdxdydz

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