Direct product decomposition of the group of complex roots of unityA question about reduced torsion abelian groupsWhat does root of unity in $mathbbZ_p$ look like?Torsion subgroup of $mathbbC^times$$p$-adic $n$-th root of unity and $exp(2pi i /n)$What is following product? $ G = prod_n in mathbbN mathbbZ_p^n $.An example of a group that that has an order of M that is abelian?Tensor product with Prüfer $p$-groupTorsion in weird groupsA decomposition on the roots of unityClassification of indecomposable abelian groups and direct product
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Direct product decomposition of the group of complex roots of unity
A question about reduced torsion abelian groupsWhat does root of unity in $mathbbZ_p$ look like?Torsion subgroup of $mathbbC^times$$p$-adic $n$-th root of unity and $exp(2pi i /n)$What is following product? $ G = prod_n in mathbbN mathbbZ_p^n $.An example of a group that that has an order of M that is abelian?Tensor product with Prüfer $p$-groupTorsion in weird groupsA decomposition on the roots of unityClassification of indecomposable abelian groups and direct product
$begingroup$
I'm studying $p$-adic numbers (Robert's "A course in $p$-adic analysis) and, at page 41, the author states that, for every prime $p$, the group $mu$ of all complex roots of unity has a direct product decomposition in terms of $mu_(p)$, the group of roots of unity of order prime to $p$, and $mu_p^infty$, the group of roots of unity having order a power of $p$; explicitly
$$mu=mu_(p)cdotmu_p^infty.$$
I don't understand how I can prove it: if $zin mu$ and $mge2$ (the case $m=1$ is obvious), maybe I can use the exponential form of complex numbers $z=exp(2pi ifrackm)$, but here I stuck.
Any hint is appreciated.
Thank you in advance for your help.
What I found in the web until now it sufficies to observe that $mu$ is abelian torsion and apply the corresponding classification theorem, right?
Note: however, I would like a direct proof.
complex-analysis group-theory complex-numbers abelian-groups roots-of-unity
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm studying $p$-adic numbers (Robert's "A course in $p$-adic analysis) and, at page 41, the author states that, for every prime $p$, the group $mu$ of all complex roots of unity has a direct product decomposition in terms of $mu_(p)$, the group of roots of unity of order prime to $p$, and $mu_p^infty$, the group of roots of unity having order a power of $p$; explicitly
$$mu=mu_(p)cdotmu_p^infty.$$
I don't understand how I can prove it: if $zin mu$ and $mge2$ (the case $m=1$ is obvious), maybe I can use the exponential form of complex numbers $z=exp(2pi ifrackm)$, but here I stuck.
Any hint is appreciated.
Thank you in advance for your help.
What I found in the web until now it sufficies to observe that $mu$ is abelian torsion and apply the corresponding classification theorem, right?
Note: however, I would like a direct proof.
complex-analysis group-theory complex-numbers abelian-groups roots-of-unity
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If you know that classification theorem, then yes
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 21 at 20:35
$begingroup$
Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:37
$begingroup$
I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm studying $p$-adic numbers (Robert's "A course in $p$-adic analysis) and, at page 41, the author states that, for every prime $p$, the group $mu$ of all complex roots of unity has a direct product decomposition in terms of $mu_(p)$, the group of roots of unity of order prime to $p$, and $mu_p^infty$, the group of roots of unity having order a power of $p$; explicitly
$$mu=mu_(p)cdotmu_p^infty.$$
I don't understand how I can prove it: if $zin mu$ and $mge2$ (the case $m=1$ is obvious), maybe I can use the exponential form of complex numbers $z=exp(2pi ifrackm)$, but here I stuck.
Any hint is appreciated.
Thank you in advance for your help.
What I found in the web until now it sufficies to observe that $mu$ is abelian torsion and apply the corresponding classification theorem, right?
Note: however, I would like a direct proof.
complex-analysis group-theory complex-numbers abelian-groups roots-of-unity
$endgroup$
I'm studying $p$-adic numbers (Robert's "A course in $p$-adic analysis) and, at page 41, the author states that, for every prime $p$, the group $mu$ of all complex roots of unity has a direct product decomposition in terms of $mu_(p)$, the group of roots of unity of order prime to $p$, and $mu_p^infty$, the group of roots of unity having order a power of $p$; explicitly
$$mu=mu_(p)cdotmu_p^infty.$$
I don't understand how I can prove it: if $zin mu$ and $mge2$ (the case $m=1$ is obvious), maybe I can use the exponential form of complex numbers $z=exp(2pi ifrackm)$, but here I stuck.
Any hint is appreciated.
Thank you in advance for your help.
What I found in the web until now it sufficies to observe that $mu$ is abelian torsion and apply the corresponding classification theorem, right?
Note: however, I would like a direct proof.
complex-analysis group-theory complex-numbers abelian-groups roots-of-unity
complex-analysis group-theory complex-numbers abelian-groups roots-of-unity
edited Mar 21 at 20:53
LBJFS
asked Mar 21 at 19:26
LBJFSLBJFS
360112
360112
$begingroup$
If you know that classification theorem, then yes
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 21 at 20:35
$begingroup$
Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:37
$begingroup$
I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If you know that classification theorem, then yes
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 21 at 20:35
$begingroup$
Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:37
$begingroup$
I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:40
$begingroup$
If you know that classification theorem, then yes
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 21 at 20:35
$begingroup$
If you know that classification theorem, then yes
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 21 at 20:35
$begingroup$
Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:37
$begingroup$
Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:37
$begingroup$
I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:40
$begingroup$
I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:40
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
If you want a direct proof, the proof of the classification theorem is not so hard anyways.
Indeed, clearly the two subgroups in question have trivial intersection, and they're both normal since $mu$ is abelian. Moreover if $xin mu$ has order $n=p^alpha m$ with $mland p = 1$, then write $um + vp^alpha = 1$ with Bezout's theorem, so that $x= x^um+vp^alpha = x^umx^vp^alpha$ and you can easily check that $x^um$ has order $p^alpha$ and $x^vp^alpha$ has order $m$, that is, order prime with $p$.
The decomposition follows.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
If you want a direct proof, the proof of the classification theorem is not so hard anyways.
Indeed, clearly the two subgroups in question have trivial intersection, and they're both normal since $mu$ is abelian. Moreover if $xin mu$ has order $n=p^alpha m$ with $mland p = 1$, then write $um + vp^alpha = 1$ with Bezout's theorem, so that $x= x^um+vp^alpha = x^umx^vp^alpha$ and you can easily check that $x^um$ has order $p^alpha$ and $x^vp^alpha$ has order $m$, that is, order prime with $p$.
The decomposition follows.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If you want a direct proof, the proof of the classification theorem is not so hard anyways.
Indeed, clearly the two subgroups in question have trivial intersection, and they're both normal since $mu$ is abelian. Moreover if $xin mu$ has order $n=p^alpha m$ with $mland p = 1$, then write $um + vp^alpha = 1$ with Bezout's theorem, so that $x= x^um+vp^alpha = x^umx^vp^alpha$ and you can easily check that $x^um$ has order $p^alpha$ and $x^vp^alpha$ has order $m$, that is, order prime with $p$.
The decomposition follows.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If you want a direct proof, the proof of the classification theorem is not so hard anyways.
Indeed, clearly the two subgroups in question have trivial intersection, and they're both normal since $mu$ is abelian. Moreover if $xin mu$ has order $n=p^alpha m$ with $mland p = 1$, then write $um + vp^alpha = 1$ with Bezout's theorem, so that $x= x^um+vp^alpha = x^umx^vp^alpha$ and you can easily check that $x^um$ has order $p^alpha$ and $x^vp^alpha$ has order $m$, that is, order prime with $p$.
The decomposition follows.
$endgroup$
If you want a direct proof, the proof of the classification theorem is not so hard anyways.
Indeed, clearly the two subgroups in question have trivial intersection, and they're both normal since $mu$ is abelian. Moreover if $xin mu$ has order $n=p^alpha m$ with $mland p = 1$, then write $um + vp^alpha = 1$ with Bezout's theorem, so that $x= x^um+vp^alpha = x^umx^vp^alpha$ and you can easily check that $x^um$ has order $p^alpha$ and $x^vp^alpha$ has order $m$, that is, order prime with $p$.
The decomposition follows.
answered Mar 21 at 20:57
MaxMax
16k11144
16k11144
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
If you know that classification theorem, then yes
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 21 at 20:35
$begingroup$
Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:37
$begingroup$
I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:40