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Direct product decomposition of the group of complex roots of unity


A question about reduced torsion abelian groupsWhat does root of unity in $mathbbZ_p$ look like?Torsion subgroup of $mathbbC^times$$p$-adic $n$-th root of unity and $exp(2pi i /n)$What is following product? $ G = prod_n in mathbbN mathbbZ_p^n $.An example of a group that that has an order of M that is abelian?Tensor product with Prüfer $p$-groupTorsion in weird groupsA decomposition on the roots of unityClassification of indecomposable abelian groups and direct product













1












$begingroup$


I'm studying $p$-adic numbers (Robert's "A course in $p$-adic analysis) and, at page 41, the author states that, for every prime $p$, the group $mu$ of all complex roots of unity has a direct product decomposition in terms of $mu_(p)$, the group of roots of unity of order prime to $p$, and $mu_p^infty$, the group of roots of unity having order a power of $p$; explicitly
$$mu=mu_(p)cdotmu_p^infty.$$



I don't understand how I can prove it: if $zin mu$ and $mge2$ (the case $m=1$ is obvious), maybe I can use the exponential form of complex numbers $z=exp(2pi ifrackm)$, but here I stuck.



Any hint is appreciated.
Thank you in advance for your help.



What I found in the web until now it sufficies to observe that $mu$ is abelian torsion and apply the corresponding classification theorem, right?



Note: however, I would like a direct proof.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    If you know that classification theorem, then yes
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 21 at 20:35










  • $begingroup$
    Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
    $endgroup$
    – LBJFS
    Mar 21 at 20:37










  • $begingroup$
    I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
    $endgroup$
    – LBJFS
    Mar 21 at 20:40















1












$begingroup$


I'm studying $p$-adic numbers (Robert's "A course in $p$-adic analysis) and, at page 41, the author states that, for every prime $p$, the group $mu$ of all complex roots of unity has a direct product decomposition in terms of $mu_(p)$, the group of roots of unity of order prime to $p$, and $mu_p^infty$, the group of roots of unity having order a power of $p$; explicitly
$$mu=mu_(p)cdotmu_p^infty.$$



I don't understand how I can prove it: if $zin mu$ and $mge2$ (the case $m=1$ is obvious), maybe I can use the exponential form of complex numbers $z=exp(2pi ifrackm)$, but here I stuck.



Any hint is appreciated.
Thank you in advance for your help.



What I found in the web until now it sufficies to observe that $mu$ is abelian torsion and apply the corresponding classification theorem, right?



Note: however, I would like a direct proof.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    If you know that classification theorem, then yes
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 21 at 20:35










  • $begingroup$
    Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
    $endgroup$
    – LBJFS
    Mar 21 at 20:37










  • $begingroup$
    I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
    $endgroup$
    – LBJFS
    Mar 21 at 20:40













1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


I'm studying $p$-adic numbers (Robert's "A course in $p$-adic analysis) and, at page 41, the author states that, for every prime $p$, the group $mu$ of all complex roots of unity has a direct product decomposition in terms of $mu_(p)$, the group of roots of unity of order prime to $p$, and $mu_p^infty$, the group of roots of unity having order a power of $p$; explicitly
$$mu=mu_(p)cdotmu_p^infty.$$



I don't understand how I can prove it: if $zin mu$ and $mge2$ (the case $m=1$ is obvious), maybe I can use the exponential form of complex numbers $z=exp(2pi ifrackm)$, but here I stuck.



Any hint is appreciated.
Thank you in advance for your help.



What I found in the web until now it sufficies to observe that $mu$ is abelian torsion and apply the corresponding classification theorem, right?



Note: however, I would like a direct proof.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm studying $p$-adic numbers (Robert's "A course in $p$-adic analysis) and, at page 41, the author states that, for every prime $p$, the group $mu$ of all complex roots of unity has a direct product decomposition in terms of $mu_(p)$, the group of roots of unity of order prime to $p$, and $mu_p^infty$, the group of roots of unity having order a power of $p$; explicitly
$$mu=mu_(p)cdotmu_p^infty.$$



I don't understand how I can prove it: if $zin mu$ and $mge2$ (the case $m=1$ is obvious), maybe I can use the exponential form of complex numbers $z=exp(2pi ifrackm)$, but here I stuck.



Any hint is appreciated.
Thank you in advance for your help.



What I found in the web until now it sufficies to observe that $mu$ is abelian torsion and apply the corresponding classification theorem, right?



Note: however, I would like a direct proof.







complex-analysis group-theory complex-numbers abelian-groups roots-of-unity






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 21 at 20:53







LBJFS

















asked Mar 21 at 19:26









LBJFSLBJFS

360112




360112











  • $begingroup$
    If you know that classification theorem, then yes
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 21 at 20:35










  • $begingroup$
    Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
    $endgroup$
    – LBJFS
    Mar 21 at 20:37










  • $begingroup$
    I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
    $endgroup$
    – LBJFS
    Mar 21 at 20:40
















  • $begingroup$
    If you know that classification theorem, then yes
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 21 at 20:35










  • $begingroup$
    Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
    $endgroup$
    – LBJFS
    Mar 21 at 20:37










  • $begingroup$
    I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
    $endgroup$
    – LBJFS
    Mar 21 at 20:40















$begingroup$
If you know that classification theorem, then yes
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 21 at 20:35




$begingroup$
If you know that classification theorem, then yes
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 21 at 20:35












$begingroup$
Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:37




$begingroup$
Actually I don't know it... I read about it in the web after I posted the question...
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:37












$begingroup$
I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:40




$begingroup$
I was looking for a "direct" answer, whenever possible
$endgroup$
– LBJFS
Mar 21 at 20:40










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

If you want a direct proof, the proof of the classification theorem is not so hard anyways.



Indeed, clearly the two subgroups in question have trivial intersection, and they're both normal since $mu$ is abelian. Moreover if $xin mu$ has order $n=p^alpha m$ with $mland p = 1$, then write $um + vp^alpha = 1$ with Bezout's theorem, so that $x= x^um+vp^alpha = x^umx^vp^alpha$ and you can easily check that $x^um$ has order $p^alpha$ and $x^vp^alpha$ has order $m$, that is, order prime with $p$.



The decomposition follows.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













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    1












    $begingroup$

    If you want a direct proof, the proof of the classification theorem is not so hard anyways.



    Indeed, clearly the two subgroups in question have trivial intersection, and they're both normal since $mu$ is abelian. Moreover if $xin mu$ has order $n=p^alpha m$ with $mland p = 1$, then write $um + vp^alpha = 1$ with Bezout's theorem, so that $x= x^um+vp^alpha = x^umx^vp^alpha$ and you can easily check that $x^um$ has order $p^alpha$ and $x^vp^alpha$ has order $m$, that is, order prime with $p$.



    The decomposition follows.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      1












      $begingroup$

      If you want a direct proof, the proof of the classification theorem is not so hard anyways.



      Indeed, clearly the two subgroups in question have trivial intersection, and they're both normal since $mu$ is abelian. Moreover if $xin mu$ has order $n=p^alpha m$ with $mland p = 1$, then write $um + vp^alpha = 1$ with Bezout's theorem, so that $x= x^um+vp^alpha = x^umx^vp^alpha$ and you can easily check that $x^um$ has order $p^alpha$ and $x^vp^alpha$ has order $m$, that is, order prime with $p$.



      The decomposition follows.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        If you want a direct proof, the proof of the classification theorem is not so hard anyways.



        Indeed, clearly the two subgroups in question have trivial intersection, and they're both normal since $mu$ is abelian. Moreover if $xin mu$ has order $n=p^alpha m$ with $mland p = 1$, then write $um + vp^alpha = 1$ with Bezout's theorem, so that $x= x^um+vp^alpha = x^umx^vp^alpha$ and you can easily check that $x^um$ has order $p^alpha$ and $x^vp^alpha$ has order $m$, that is, order prime with $p$.



        The decomposition follows.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        If you want a direct proof, the proof of the classification theorem is not so hard anyways.



        Indeed, clearly the two subgroups in question have trivial intersection, and they're both normal since $mu$ is abelian. Moreover if $xin mu$ has order $n=p^alpha m$ with $mland p = 1$, then write $um + vp^alpha = 1$ with Bezout's theorem, so that $x= x^um+vp^alpha = x^umx^vp^alpha$ and you can easily check that $x^um$ has order $p^alpha$ and $x^vp^alpha$ has order $m$, that is, order prime with $p$.



        The decomposition follows.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 21 at 20:57









        MaxMax

        16k11144




        16k11144



























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