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Quotient by a subring and not an ideal


Ring germs of $C^infty$ functions on the real lineTangent space as the dual of an ideal quotientAlgebraic definition of Tangent space of manifold.Where can I find this result?Zariski cotangent space, as defined in Arapura's “Algebraic Geometry over the Complex Numbers”Questions about tangent and cotangent bundle on schemesDerivatives and the cotangent spacetom Dieck's universal definition of a tangent spaceLocally Analytic NullstellensatzIdentification of the tangent space of a manifold and the tangent vectors to curves













2












$begingroup$


I'm working towards understanding the Zariski tangent space of a $C^k$ manifold, using this pdf.



The author defines $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$ as the set of germs of $C^k$ functions at $p$, which forms a ring as well as an algebra over $mathbbR$ (and itself, of course) with operations defined pointwise.



They further define $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ as the set of germs of $C^k$ functions stationary at $p$, i.e.
$mathbff in mathcalS^(k)_M,p iff forall(f in mathbff).(f circ varphi^-1)'(varphi(p))=0$, for some (and any) chart $varphi$ at $p$.
This is clearly a subring (and subalgebra) of $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$, but not an ideal (as the author points out).



The author then asserts that $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ is (1) a vector space that is (2) isomorphic to the space of linear derivations on $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$ that vanish on $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$, in turn (3) isomorphic to $T_p^*M$ the (usual) cotangent space. However, I do not understand the quotient $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / mathcalS^(k)_M,p$, since $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ is not an ideal. Is this a quotient of algebras/vector spaces? What is the implied equivalence relation?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    I'm working towards understanding the Zariski tangent space of a $C^k$ manifold, using this pdf.



    The author defines $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$ as the set of germs of $C^k$ functions at $p$, which forms a ring as well as an algebra over $mathbbR$ (and itself, of course) with operations defined pointwise.



    They further define $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ as the set of germs of $C^k$ functions stationary at $p$, i.e.
    $mathbff in mathcalS^(k)_M,p iff forall(f in mathbff).(f circ varphi^-1)'(varphi(p))=0$, for some (and any) chart $varphi$ at $p$.
    This is clearly a subring (and subalgebra) of $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$, but not an ideal (as the author points out).



    The author then asserts that $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ is (1) a vector space that is (2) isomorphic to the space of linear derivations on $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$ that vanish on $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$, in turn (3) isomorphic to $T_p^*M$ the (usual) cotangent space. However, I do not understand the quotient $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / mathcalS^(k)_M,p$, since $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ is not an ideal. Is this a quotient of algebras/vector spaces? What is the implied equivalence relation?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I'm working towards understanding the Zariski tangent space of a $C^k$ manifold, using this pdf.



      The author defines $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$ as the set of germs of $C^k$ functions at $p$, which forms a ring as well as an algebra over $mathbbR$ (and itself, of course) with operations defined pointwise.



      They further define $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ as the set of germs of $C^k$ functions stationary at $p$, i.e.
      $mathbff in mathcalS^(k)_M,p iff forall(f in mathbff).(f circ varphi^-1)'(varphi(p))=0$, for some (and any) chart $varphi$ at $p$.
      This is clearly a subring (and subalgebra) of $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$, but not an ideal (as the author points out).



      The author then asserts that $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ is (1) a vector space that is (2) isomorphic to the space of linear derivations on $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$ that vanish on $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$, in turn (3) isomorphic to $T_p^*M$ the (usual) cotangent space. However, I do not understand the quotient $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / mathcalS^(k)_M,p$, since $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ is not an ideal. Is this a quotient of algebras/vector spaces? What is the implied equivalence relation?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I'm working towards understanding the Zariski tangent space of a $C^k$ manifold, using this pdf.



      The author defines $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$ as the set of germs of $C^k$ functions at $p$, which forms a ring as well as an algebra over $mathbbR$ (and itself, of course) with operations defined pointwise.



      They further define $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ as the set of germs of $C^k$ functions stationary at $p$, i.e.
      $mathbff in mathcalS^(k)_M,p iff forall(f in mathbff).(f circ varphi^-1)'(varphi(p))=0$, for some (and any) chart $varphi$ at $p$.
      This is clearly a subring (and subalgebra) of $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$, but not an ideal (as the author points out).



      The author then asserts that $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ is (1) a vector space that is (2) isomorphic to the space of linear derivations on $mathcalO^(k)_M,p$ that vanish on $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$, in turn (3) isomorphic to $T_p^*M$ the (usual) cotangent space. However, I do not understand the quotient $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / mathcalS^(k)_M,p$, since $mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ is not an ideal. Is this a quotient of algebras/vector spaces? What is the implied equivalence relation?







      algebraic-geometry algebraic-topology manifolds tangent-spaces






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 21 at 19:20









      terrygarciaterrygarcia

      1509




      1509




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Since it is a subalgebra, it is also a vector subspace. Do you know how to take the quotient by a vector subspace? It preserves the vector space structure, but the ring structure disappears.



          You're doing the same thing when you take the quotient of any ring by an ideal: primarily it is a quotient of an abelian group by a subgroup. The ring structure is a "bonus" that you get when the subgroup is an ideal.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I see, so then the relation is the usual $a sim b iff a - b in mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ and the quotient is $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / sim$?
            $endgroup$
            – terrygarcia
            Mar 21 at 19:40






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @terry Yes, that's right.
            $endgroup$
            – Matt Samuel
            Mar 21 at 19:41











          Your Answer





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          1






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          active

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          Since it is a subalgebra, it is also a vector subspace. Do you know how to take the quotient by a vector subspace? It preserves the vector space structure, but the ring structure disappears.



          You're doing the same thing when you take the quotient of any ring by an ideal: primarily it is a quotient of an abelian group by a subgroup. The ring structure is a "bonus" that you get when the subgroup is an ideal.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I see, so then the relation is the usual $a sim b iff a - b in mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ and the quotient is $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / sim$?
            $endgroup$
            – terrygarcia
            Mar 21 at 19:40






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @terry Yes, that's right.
            $endgroup$
            – Matt Samuel
            Mar 21 at 19:41















          2












          $begingroup$

          Since it is a subalgebra, it is also a vector subspace. Do you know how to take the quotient by a vector subspace? It preserves the vector space structure, but the ring structure disappears.



          You're doing the same thing when you take the quotient of any ring by an ideal: primarily it is a quotient of an abelian group by a subgroup. The ring structure is a "bonus" that you get when the subgroup is an ideal.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I see, so then the relation is the usual $a sim b iff a - b in mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ and the quotient is $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / sim$?
            $endgroup$
            – terrygarcia
            Mar 21 at 19:40






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @terry Yes, that's right.
            $endgroup$
            – Matt Samuel
            Mar 21 at 19:41













          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Since it is a subalgebra, it is also a vector subspace. Do you know how to take the quotient by a vector subspace? It preserves the vector space structure, but the ring structure disappears.



          You're doing the same thing when you take the quotient of any ring by an ideal: primarily it is a quotient of an abelian group by a subgroup. The ring structure is a "bonus" that you get when the subgroup is an ideal.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Since it is a subalgebra, it is also a vector subspace. Do you know how to take the quotient by a vector subspace? It preserves the vector space structure, but the ring structure disappears.



          You're doing the same thing when you take the quotient of any ring by an ideal: primarily it is a quotient of an abelian group by a subgroup. The ring structure is a "bonus" that you get when the subgroup is an ideal.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 21 at 19:30









          Matt SamuelMatt Samuel

          39.1k63770




          39.1k63770











          • $begingroup$
            I see, so then the relation is the usual $a sim b iff a - b in mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ and the quotient is $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / sim$?
            $endgroup$
            – terrygarcia
            Mar 21 at 19:40






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @terry Yes, that's right.
            $endgroup$
            – Matt Samuel
            Mar 21 at 19:41
















          • $begingroup$
            I see, so then the relation is the usual $a sim b iff a - b in mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ and the quotient is $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / sim$?
            $endgroup$
            – terrygarcia
            Mar 21 at 19:40






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @terry Yes, that's right.
            $endgroup$
            – Matt Samuel
            Mar 21 at 19:41















          $begingroup$
          I see, so then the relation is the usual $a sim b iff a - b in mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ and the quotient is $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / sim$?
          $endgroup$
          – terrygarcia
          Mar 21 at 19:40




          $begingroup$
          I see, so then the relation is the usual $a sim b iff a - b in mathcalS^(k)_M,p$ and the quotient is $mathcalO^(k)_M,p / sim$?
          $endgroup$
          – terrygarcia
          Mar 21 at 19:40




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @terry Yes, that's right.
          $endgroup$
          – Matt Samuel
          Mar 21 at 19:41




          $begingroup$
          @terry Yes, that's right.
          $endgroup$
          – Matt Samuel
          Mar 21 at 19:41

















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