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Simply connected and direct products


contractible and simply connectedIs a path connected subspace of a simply connected space simply connected?Is a simply connected set connected?How to compute the fundamental group from first homology group?Is there a non-simply-connected space with trivial first homology group?Question about simply connected spaces.Does trivial fundamental group imply contractible?Use Seifert–van Kampen to show $X ast Y$ is simply connected if $X$ is path connected.locally simply-connected vs. semilocally simply-connectedProve “Contractible implies simply connected” using tools in Munkres Topology. Context is theta-space.













1












$begingroup$


A topological space $X$ is simply connected if and only if $X$ is path-connected and the fundamental group of $X$ at each point is trivial, that is, $pi(X,x_0) = 0$ for any $x_0 in X$.



Now, we know that if $X,Y$ are simply connected, then $X times Y$ is simply connected. My question: Is it also true the converse?



Since $X times Y$ is path-connected we get $X,Y$ are path-connected. There exist a way to assert $pi(X) = pi(Y) = 0$?



Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    A topological space $X$ is simply connected if and only if $X$ is path-connected and the fundamental group of $X$ at each point is trivial, that is, $pi(X,x_0) = 0$ for any $x_0 in X$.



    Now, we know that if $X,Y$ are simply connected, then $X times Y$ is simply connected. My question: Is it also true the converse?



    Since $X times Y$ is path-connected we get $X,Y$ are path-connected. There exist a way to assert $pi(X) = pi(Y) = 0$?



    Thanks!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      A topological space $X$ is simply connected if and only if $X$ is path-connected and the fundamental group of $X$ at each point is trivial, that is, $pi(X,x_0) = 0$ for any $x_0 in X$.



      Now, we know that if $X,Y$ are simply connected, then $X times Y$ is simply connected. My question: Is it also true the converse?



      Since $X times Y$ is path-connected we get $X,Y$ are path-connected. There exist a way to assert $pi(X) = pi(Y) = 0$?



      Thanks!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      A topological space $X$ is simply connected if and only if $X$ is path-connected and the fundamental group of $X$ at each point is trivial, that is, $pi(X,x_0) = 0$ for any $x_0 in X$.



      Now, we know that if $X,Y$ are simply connected, then $X times Y$ is simply connected. My question: Is it also true the converse?



      Since $X times Y$ is path-connected we get $X,Y$ are path-connected. There exist a way to assert $pi(X) = pi(Y) = 0$?



      Thanks!







      algebraic-topology fundamental-groups






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 21 at 19:45









      user183002user183002

      312




      312




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          Hint: $pi_1(X times Y, (x_0, y_0)) cong pi_1(X, x_0) times pi_1(Y, y_0)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I know that result... But I´m not sure that $pi(X times Y) = 0$ implies $pi(X) = 0$.
            $endgroup$
            – user183002
            Mar 21 at 20:17






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Try counting the size of the groups on either side of the isomorphism. We know that $pi_1(X times Y)$ has one element, so...
            $endgroup$
            – JHF
            Mar 21 at 20:24










          • $begingroup$
            So....... It thas implies $pi(X)$ only has one element?
            $endgroup$
            – user183002
            Mar 21 at 20:26






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes. The product of two groups is trivial iff the two factors are trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – JHF
            Mar 21 at 20:28











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          Hint: $pi_1(X times Y, (x_0, y_0)) cong pi_1(X, x_0) times pi_1(Y, y_0)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I know that result... But I´m not sure that $pi(X times Y) = 0$ implies $pi(X) = 0$.
            $endgroup$
            – user183002
            Mar 21 at 20:17






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Try counting the size of the groups on either side of the isomorphism. We know that $pi_1(X times Y)$ has one element, so...
            $endgroup$
            – JHF
            Mar 21 at 20:24










          • $begingroup$
            So....... It thas implies $pi(X)$ only has one element?
            $endgroup$
            – user183002
            Mar 21 at 20:26






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes. The product of two groups is trivial iff the two factors are trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – JHF
            Mar 21 at 20:28















          1












          $begingroup$

          Hint: $pi_1(X times Y, (x_0, y_0)) cong pi_1(X, x_0) times pi_1(Y, y_0)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I know that result... But I´m not sure that $pi(X times Y) = 0$ implies $pi(X) = 0$.
            $endgroup$
            – user183002
            Mar 21 at 20:17






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Try counting the size of the groups on either side of the isomorphism. We know that $pi_1(X times Y)$ has one element, so...
            $endgroup$
            – JHF
            Mar 21 at 20:24










          • $begingroup$
            So....... It thas implies $pi(X)$ only has one element?
            $endgroup$
            – user183002
            Mar 21 at 20:26






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes. The product of two groups is trivial iff the two factors are trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – JHF
            Mar 21 at 20:28













          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Hint: $pi_1(X times Y, (x_0, y_0)) cong pi_1(X, x_0) times pi_1(Y, y_0)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Hint: $pi_1(X times Y, (x_0, y_0)) cong pi_1(X, x_0) times pi_1(Y, y_0)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 21 at 20:09









          JHFJHF

          4,9611026




          4,9611026











          • $begingroup$
            I know that result... But I´m not sure that $pi(X times Y) = 0$ implies $pi(X) = 0$.
            $endgroup$
            – user183002
            Mar 21 at 20:17






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Try counting the size of the groups on either side of the isomorphism. We know that $pi_1(X times Y)$ has one element, so...
            $endgroup$
            – JHF
            Mar 21 at 20:24










          • $begingroup$
            So....... It thas implies $pi(X)$ only has one element?
            $endgroup$
            – user183002
            Mar 21 at 20:26






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes. The product of two groups is trivial iff the two factors are trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – JHF
            Mar 21 at 20:28
















          • $begingroup$
            I know that result... But I´m not sure that $pi(X times Y) = 0$ implies $pi(X) = 0$.
            $endgroup$
            – user183002
            Mar 21 at 20:17






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Try counting the size of the groups on either side of the isomorphism. We know that $pi_1(X times Y)$ has one element, so...
            $endgroup$
            – JHF
            Mar 21 at 20:24










          • $begingroup$
            So....... It thas implies $pi(X)$ only has one element?
            $endgroup$
            – user183002
            Mar 21 at 20:26






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes. The product of two groups is trivial iff the two factors are trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – JHF
            Mar 21 at 20:28















          $begingroup$
          I know that result... But I´m not sure that $pi(X times Y) = 0$ implies $pi(X) = 0$.
          $endgroup$
          – user183002
          Mar 21 at 20:17




          $begingroup$
          I know that result... But I´m not sure that $pi(X times Y) = 0$ implies $pi(X) = 0$.
          $endgroup$
          – user183002
          Mar 21 at 20:17




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Try counting the size of the groups on either side of the isomorphism. We know that $pi_1(X times Y)$ has one element, so...
          $endgroup$
          – JHF
          Mar 21 at 20:24




          $begingroup$
          Try counting the size of the groups on either side of the isomorphism. We know that $pi_1(X times Y)$ has one element, so...
          $endgroup$
          – JHF
          Mar 21 at 20:24












          $begingroup$
          So....... It thas implies $pi(X)$ only has one element?
          $endgroup$
          – user183002
          Mar 21 at 20:26




          $begingroup$
          So....... It thas implies $pi(X)$ only has one element?
          $endgroup$
          – user183002
          Mar 21 at 20:26




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Yes. The product of two groups is trivial iff the two factors are trivial.
          $endgroup$
          – JHF
          Mar 21 at 20:28




          $begingroup$
          Yes. The product of two groups is trivial iff the two factors are trivial.
          $endgroup$
          – JHF
          Mar 21 at 20:28

















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