Conditional Expectation Inequality for bounded momentConditional expectation w.r.t. random variable and w.r.t. $sigma$-algebra, equivalenceEstimator for conditional expectation w.r.t an eventVariance of Conditional Expectation From First PrinciplesConditional expectation with respect to sigma algebraInequality for Poisson point processIs my understanding of a multivariate discrete conditional expectation calculation correct?How is the conditional expectation calculated?show that Conditional Expectation inequality existsConditional expectation counterexamplesIntuition behind the expectation of a conditional expectation

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Conditional Expectation Inequality for bounded moment


Conditional expectation w.r.t. random variable and w.r.t. $sigma$-algebra, equivalenceEstimator for conditional expectation w.r.t an eventVariance of Conditional Expectation From First PrinciplesConditional expectation with respect to sigma algebraInequality for Poisson point processIs my understanding of a multivariate discrete conditional expectation calculation correct?How is the conditional expectation calculated?show that Conditional Expectation inequality existsConditional expectation counterexamplesIntuition behind the expectation of a conditional expectation













0












$begingroup$


I was going through a proof in Agnostic Estimation of Mean and Variance (Lemma 3.12, page 21) and encountered the following:



  • Let $X$ be a random variable with $mathbfE[X] = mu$ and $mathbfE[(X-mu)^2] = sigma^2$

  • Let $A$ be an event that occurs with probability $1-epsilon$ and let $A^c$ be the complement (i.e. $P(A^c)=epsilon$)

  • Let $d Omega$ be the probability measure

Using $Ebig[(Y - E[Y])^4big] geq big(Ebig[(Y-E[Y])^2big]big)^2$ for a random variable $Y$, and $P(A^c)=epsilon$, we have



$$
frac1epsilon bigg( int_A^c (X - mu)^2 dOmega bigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
$$

What I do not understand is where the $frac1epsilon$ is coming from when just using the proposed inequality with $Y = X mid A^c$?



And how to show the inequality still holds?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    I was going through a proof in Agnostic Estimation of Mean and Variance (Lemma 3.12, page 21) and encountered the following:



    • Let $X$ be a random variable with $mathbfE[X] = mu$ and $mathbfE[(X-mu)^2] = sigma^2$

    • Let $A$ be an event that occurs with probability $1-epsilon$ and let $A^c$ be the complement (i.e. $P(A^c)=epsilon$)

    • Let $d Omega$ be the probability measure

    Using $Ebig[(Y - E[Y])^4big] geq big(Ebig[(Y-E[Y])^2big]big)^2$ for a random variable $Y$, and $P(A^c)=epsilon$, we have



    $$
    frac1epsilon bigg( int_A^c (X - mu)^2 dOmega bigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
    $$

    What I do not understand is where the $frac1epsilon$ is coming from when just using the proposed inequality with $Y = X mid A^c$?



    And how to show the inequality still holds?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0


      2



      $begingroup$


      I was going through a proof in Agnostic Estimation of Mean and Variance (Lemma 3.12, page 21) and encountered the following:



      • Let $X$ be a random variable with $mathbfE[X] = mu$ and $mathbfE[(X-mu)^2] = sigma^2$

      • Let $A$ be an event that occurs with probability $1-epsilon$ and let $A^c$ be the complement (i.e. $P(A^c)=epsilon$)

      • Let $d Omega$ be the probability measure

      Using $Ebig[(Y - E[Y])^4big] geq big(Ebig[(Y-E[Y])^2big]big)^2$ for a random variable $Y$, and $P(A^c)=epsilon$, we have



      $$
      frac1epsilon bigg( int_A^c (X - mu)^2 dOmega bigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
      $$

      What I do not understand is where the $frac1epsilon$ is coming from when just using the proposed inequality with $Y = X mid A^c$?



      And how to show the inequality still holds?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I was going through a proof in Agnostic Estimation of Mean and Variance (Lemma 3.12, page 21) and encountered the following:



      • Let $X$ be a random variable with $mathbfE[X] = mu$ and $mathbfE[(X-mu)^2] = sigma^2$

      • Let $A$ be an event that occurs with probability $1-epsilon$ and let $A^c$ be the complement (i.e. $P(A^c)=epsilon$)

      • Let $d Omega$ be the probability measure

      Using $Ebig[(Y - E[Y])^4big] geq big(Ebig[(Y-E[Y])^2big]big)^2$ for a random variable $Y$, and $P(A^c)=epsilon$, we have



      $$
      frac1epsilon bigg( int_A^c (X - mu)^2 dOmega bigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
      $$

      What I do not understand is where the $frac1epsilon$ is coming from when just using the proposed inequality with $Y = X mid A^c$?



      And how to show the inequality still holds?







      probability probability-theory inequality conditional-expectation expected-value






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 25 at 13:32







      eeek

















      asked Mar 21 at 19:50









      eeekeeek

      12




      12




















          1 Answer
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          0












          $begingroup$

          So this is actually trivial but the notation was confusing me.



          Because $dOmega$ is the probability measure for the entire space, $int_A^c(X-mu)^2 dOmega=P(A^c)Var(X mid A^c)$ so we'd have to normalize it.



          $$
          beginaligned
          &bigg( int_A^c (X - mu)^2 d Omega bigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
          \
          &implies bigg( frac1P(A^c) int_A^c (X-mu)^2 dOmegabigg)^2 leq frac1P(A^c) int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega\
          &implies frac1P(A^c)bigg( int_A^c (X-mu)^2 dOmegabigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
          endaligned
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













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            0












            $begingroup$

            So this is actually trivial but the notation was confusing me.



            Because $dOmega$ is the probability measure for the entire space, $int_A^c(X-mu)^2 dOmega=P(A^c)Var(X mid A^c)$ so we'd have to normalize it.



            $$
            beginaligned
            &bigg( int_A^c (X - mu)^2 d Omega bigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
            \
            &implies bigg( frac1P(A^c) int_A^c (X-mu)^2 dOmegabigg)^2 leq frac1P(A^c) int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega\
            &implies frac1P(A^c)bigg( int_A^c (X-mu)^2 dOmegabigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
            endaligned
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              0












              $begingroup$

              So this is actually trivial but the notation was confusing me.



              Because $dOmega$ is the probability measure for the entire space, $int_A^c(X-mu)^2 dOmega=P(A^c)Var(X mid A^c)$ so we'd have to normalize it.



              $$
              beginaligned
              &bigg( int_A^c (X - mu)^2 d Omega bigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
              \
              &implies bigg( frac1P(A^c) int_A^c (X-mu)^2 dOmegabigg)^2 leq frac1P(A^c) int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega\
              &implies frac1P(A^c)bigg( int_A^c (X-mu)^2 dOmegabigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
              endaligned
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                So this is actually trivial but the notation was confusing me.



                Because $dOmega$ is the probability measure for the entire space, $int_A^c(X-mu)^2 dOmega=P(A^c)Var(X mid A^c)$ so we'd have to normalize it.



                $$
                beginaligned
                &bigg( int_A^c (X - mu)^2 d Omega bigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
                \
                &implies bigg( frac1P(A^c) int_A^c (X-mu)^2 dOmegabigg)^2 leq frac1P(A^c) int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega\
                &implies frac1P(A^c)bigg( int_A^c (X-mu)^2 dOmegabigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
                endaligned
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                So this is actually trivial but the notation was confusing me.



                Because $dOmega$ is the probability measure for the entire space, $int_A^c(X-mu)^2 dOmega=P(A^c)Var(X mid A^c)$ so we'd have to normalize it.



                $$
                beginaligned
                &bigg( int_A^c (X - mu)^2 d Omega bigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
                \
                &implies bigg( frac1P(A^c) int_A^c (X-mu)^2 dOmegabigg)^2 leq frac1P(A^c) int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega\
                &implies frac1P(A^c)bigg( int_A^c (X-mu)^2 dOmegabigg)^2 leq int_A^c (X - mu)^4 dOmega
                endaligned
                $$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 25 at 22:56









                eeekeeek

                12




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