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Diverging Integral with Bessel Function


How to compute this integral of Bessel functions?Compute a Real Integral using Residue TheoremInverting a Characteristic Function for half-cubic Student's T entailing a Modified Bessel of 2nd kindDefinite integral of Bessel function product over fourth powerEvaluating functions similar to the Bessel functionsContour integral to real integral: find suitable change of variablesFinishing off integral of a Bessel functionIntegral with an inverse function limitDifferentiating an improper integral with a variable limitDoubt In A simple integral using complex numbers













0












$begingroup$


I am looking for the solution to the integral:



$$int_a^infty x J_n(alpha x);dx$$



where $a<< alpha$ and $n$. I get something out of Mathematica for $a=1,2,0.1...$ in terms of the Hypergeometric function. It makes me think that some conditional expression for the solution exists, I just fail to find it.




The original integral of interest is actually this one



$$int_0^infty x J_n(alpha x);dx$$



However, I know, this one does not converge. Maybe someone knows how to estimate it at least in certain limits (n should be any)... I need to extract something sensible, not just "you failed, go on with your life" kind of a situation...



I have tried to truncate it on top and take a limit to infinity, but that also doesn't work.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    You sure that's not a product of two Bessel functions? Because there's an orthogonality relation $int_0^inftyxJ_n(alpha x)J_n(beta x),dx=0$ for $alpha neq beta$. The sensible thing to extract may well be that we should have been working with a different integral.
    $endgroup$
    – jmerry
    Jan 25 at 23:47















0












$begingroup$


I am looking for the solution to the integral:



$$int_a^infty x J_n(alpha x);dx$$



where $a<< alpha$ and $n$. I get something out of Mathematica for $a=1,2,0.1...$ in terms of the Hypergeometric function. It makes me think that some conditional expression for the solution exists, I just fail to find it.




The original integral of interest is actually this one



$$int_0^infty x J_n(alpha x);dx$$



However, I know, this one does not converge. Maybe someone knows how to estimate it at least in certain limits (n should be any)... I need to extract something sensible, not just "you failed, go on with your life" kind of a situation...



I have tried to truncate it on top and take a limit to infinity, but that also doesn't work.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    You sure that's not a product of two Bessel functions? Because there's an orthogonality relation $int_0^inftyxJ_n(alpha x)J_n(beta x),dx=0$ for $alpha neq beta$. The sensible thing to extract may well be that we should have been working with a different integral.
    $endgroup$
    – jmerry
    Jan 25 at 23:47













0












0








0





$begingroup$


I am looking for the solution to the integral:



$$int_a^infty x J_n(alpha x);dx$$



where $a<< alpha$ and $n$. I get something out of Mathematica for $a=1,2,0.1...$ in terms of the Hypergeometric function. It makes me think that some conditional expression for the solution exists, I just fail to find it.




The original integral of interest is actually this one



$$int_0^infty x J_n(alpha x);dx$$



However, I know, this one does not converge. Maybe someone knows how to estimate it at least in certain limits (n should be any)... I need to extract something sensible, not just "you failed, go on with your life" kind of a situation...



I have tried to truncate it on top and take a limit to infinity, but that also doesn't work.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am looking for the solution to the integral:



$$int_a^infty x J_n(alpha x);dx$$



where $a<< alpha$ and $n$. I get something out of Mathematica for $a=1,2,0.1...$ in terms of the Hypergeometric function. It makes me think that some conditional expression for the solution exists, I just fail to find it.




The original integral of interest is actually this one



$$int_0^infty x J_n(alpha x);dx$$



However, I know, this one does not converge. Maybe someone knows how to estimate it at least in certain limits (n should be any)... I need to extract something sensible, not just "you failed, go on with your life" kind of a situation...



I have tried to truncate it on top and take a limit to infinity, but that also doesn't work.







integration definite-integrals bessel-functions parameter-estimation






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 10 at 20:10









Robert Howard

2,2112933




2,2112933










asked Jan 25 at 23:16









MsTaisMsTais

1808




1808











  • $begingroup$
    You sure that's not a product of two Bessel functions? Because there's an orthogonality relation $int_0^inftyxJ_n(alpha x)J_n(beta x),dx=0$ for $alpha neq beta$. The sensible thing to extract may well be that we should have been working with a different integral.
    $endgroup$
    – jmerry
    Jan 25 at 23:47
















  • $begingroup$
    You sure that's not a product of two Bessel functions? Because there's an orthogonality relation $int_0^inftyxJ_n(alpha x)J_n(beta x),dx=0$ for $alpha neq beta$. The sensible thing to extract may well be that we should have been working with a different integral.
    $endgroup$
    – jmerry
    Jan 25 at 23:47















$begingroup$
You sure that's not a product of two Bessel functions? Because there's an orthogonality relation $int_0^inftyxJ_n(alpha x)J_n(beta x),dx=0$ for $alpha neq beta$. The sensible thing to extract may well be that we should have been working with a different integral.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 25 at 23:47




$begingroup$
You sure that's not a product of two Bessel functions? Because there's an orthogonality relation $int_0^inftyxJ_n(alpha x)J_n(beta x),dx=0$ for $alpha neq beta$. The sensible thing to extract may well be that we should have been working with a different integral.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 25 at 23:47










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Your original integral is the Hankel Transform of order n of the function $f(x) = 1$.



The Hankel Transform of order n, and its inverse, can be defined as



$$mathscrH_nleftf(r)right = F(q) = int_0^infty f(r)J_n(qr)rspace dr$$
$$mathscrH^-1_nleftF(q)right = f(r) = int_0^infty F(q)J_n(qr)qspace dq$$



Note that the Hankel Transform is its own inverse.



For $n = 0$, and for an appropriate definition of the Dirac Delta distribution, it is easy to show the answer to your integral by using the inverse transform:



$$mathscrH^-1_0leftdfracdelta(q)qright = int_0^infty dfracdelta(q)qJ_0(qr)qspace dq = 1$$
$$mathscrH_0left1right = int_0^infty J_0(qr)rspace dr = dfracdelta(q)q$$



For higher orders of $n$, try to find a table of Hankel Transforms from a reliable source.






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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    2












    $begingroup$

    Your original integral is the Hankel Transform of order n of the function $f(x) = 1$.



    The Hankel Transform of order n, and its inverse, can be defined as



    $$mathscrH_nleftf(r)right = F(q) = int_0^infty f(r)J_n(qr)rspace dr$$
    $$mathscrH^-1_nleftF(q)right = f(r) = int_0^infty F(q)J_n(qr)qspace dq$$



    Note that the Hankel Transform is its own inverse.



    For $n = 0$, and for an appropriate definition of the Dirac Delta distribution, it is easy to show the answer to your integral by using the inverse transform:



    $$mathscrH^-1_0leftdfracdelta(q)qright = int_0^infty dfracdelta(q)qJ_0(qr)qspace dq = 1$$
    $$mathscrH_0left1right = int_0^infty J_0(qr)rspace dr = dfracdelta(q)q$$



    For higher orders of $n$, try to find a table of Hankel Transforms from a reliable source.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      2












      $begingroup$

      Your original integral is the Hankel Transform of order n of the function $f(x) = 1$.



      The Hankel Transform of order n, and its inverse, can be defined as



      $$mathscrH_nleftf(r)right = F(q) = int_0^infty f(r)J_n(qr)rspace dr$$
      $$mathscrH^-1_nleftF(q)right = f(r) = int_0^infty F(q)J_n(qr)qspace dq$$



      Note that the Hankel Transform is its own inverse.



      For $n = 0$, and for an appropriate definition of the Dirac Delta distribution, it is easy to show the answer to your integral by using the inverse transform:



      $$mathscrH^-1_0leftdfracdelta(q)qright = int_0^infty dfracdelta(q)qJ_0(qr)qspace dq = 1$$
      $$mathscrH_0left1right = int_0^infty J_0(qr)rspace dr = dfracdelta(q)q$$



      For higher orders of $n$, try to find a table of Hankel Transforms from a reliable source.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        Your original integral is the Hankel Transform of order n of the function $f(x) = 1$.



        The Hankel Transform of order n, and its inverse, can be defined as



        $$mathscrH_nleftf(r)right = F(q) = int_0^infty f(r)J_n(qr)rspace dr$$
        $$mathscrH^-1_nleftF(q)right = f(r) = int_0^infty F(q)J_n(qr)qspace dq$$



        Note that the Hankel Transform is its own inverse.



        For $n = 0$, and for an appropriate definition of the Dirac Delta distribution, it is easy to show the answer to your integral by using the inverse transform:



        $$mathscrH^-1_0leftdfracdelta(q)qright = int_0^infty dfracdelta(q)qJ_0(qr)qspace dq = 1$$
        $$mathscrH_0left1right = int_0^infty J_0(qr)rspace dr = dfracdelta(q)q$$



        For higher orders of $n$, try to find a table of Hankel Transforms from a reliable source.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Your original integral is the Hankel Transform of order n of the function $f(x) = 1$.



        The Hankel Transform of order n, and its inverse, can be defined as



        $$mathscrH_nleftf(r)right = F(q) = int_0^infty f(r)J_n(qr)rspace dr$$
        $$mathscrH^-1_nleftF(q)right = f(r) = int_0^infty F(q)J_n(qr)qspace dq$$



        Note that the Hankel Transform is its own inverse.



        For $n = 0$, and for an appropriate definition of the Dirac Delta distribution, it is easy to show the answer to your integral by using the inverse transform:



        $$mathscrH^-1_0leftdfracdelta(q)qright = int_0^infty dfracdelta(q)qJ_0(qr)qspace dq = 1$$
        $$mathscrH_0left1right = int_0^infty J_0(qr)rspace dr = dfracdelta(q)q$$



        For higher orders of $n$, try to find a table of Hankel Transforms from a reliable source.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 26 at 0:09









        Andy WallsAndy Walls

        1,754139




        1,754139



























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