Discrete Mathematics Surjective injective bijective proofSurjective, Injective, Bijective Functions from $mathbb Z$ to itselfSufficient / necessary conditions for $g circ f$ being injective, surjective or bijectiveFunctions Type (Injective and surjective)Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?Is this function bijective, surjective and injective?Intuitive definition of injective, surjective and bijectiveStability of injective, surjective and bijective functions under compositionWhich values of $(a,b)$ make a function bijective/surjective/injective.Why is the composition of a surjective and injective function neither surjective nor injective?Proving a multi variable function bijective
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Discrete Mathematics Surjective injective bijective proof
Surjective, Injective, Bijective Functions from $mathbb Z$ to itselfSufficient / necessary conditions for $g circ f$ being injective, surjective or bijectiveFunctions Type (Injective and surjective)Injective? Surjective? Bijective? None?Is this function bijective, surjective and injective?Intuitive definition of injective, surjective and bijectiveStability of injective, surjective and bijective functions under compositionWhich values of $(a,b)$ make a function bijective/surjective/injective.Why is the composition of a surjective and injective function neither surjective nor injective?Proving a multi variable function bijective
$begingroup$
- Prove that the following function f : R+ → R>2 is both injective and
surjective and therefore, bijective.
$$f(x) = 2 + sqrtx$$
- Use the method of disproof by counterexample to show that function $g:
Z to Z$ with the following general formula is neither injective nor surjective: $g(n) = n^2 − 8$
functions
New contributor
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
- Prove that the following function f : R+ → R>2 is both injective and
surjective and therefore, bijective.
$$f(x) = 2 + sqrtx$$
- Use the method of disproof by counterexample to show that function $g:
Z to Z$ with the following general formula is neither injective nor surjective: $g(n) = n^2 − 8$
functions
New contributor
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The first statement is true taking f from R+ to R+ but I don't understand what "R> 2" means.
$endgroup$
– user247327
Mar 10 at 20:47
$begingroup$
I think OP means $mathbbR_>2 = (2,infty)$ or $mathbbR_geq 2 = [2,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 10 at 20:53
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Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! Take the short tour to see how how to get the most from your time here. For typesetting equations please use MathJax.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
2 days ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
- Prove that the following function f : R+ → R>2 is both injective and
surjective and therefore, bijective.
$$f(x) = 2 + sqrtx$$
- Use the method of disproof by counterexample to show that function $g:
Z to Z$ with the following general formula is neither injective nor surjective: $g(n) = n^2 − 8$
functions
New contributor
$endgroup$
- Prove that the following function f : R+ → R>2 is both injective and
surjective and therefore, bijective.
$$f(x) = 2 + sqrtx$$
- Use the method of disproof by counterexample to show that function $g:
Z to Z$ with the following general formula is neither injective nor surjective: $g(n) = n^2 − 8$
functions
functions
New contributor
New contributor
edited 2 days ago
dantopa
6,62442245
6,62442245
New contributor
asked Mar 10 at 20:31
RoxyRoxy
1
1
New contributor
New contributor
$begingroup$
The first statement is true taking f from R+ to R+ but I don't understand what "R> 2" means.
$endgroup$
– user247327
Mar 10 at 20:47
$begingroup$
I think OP means $mathbbR_>2 = (2,infty)$ or $mathbbR_geq 2 = [2,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 10 at 20:53
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! Take the short tour to see how how to get the most from your time here. For typesetting equations please use MathJax.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
2 days ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The first statement is true taking f from R+ to R+ but I don't understand what "R> 2" means.
$endgroup$
– user247327
Mar 10 at 20:47
$begingroup$
I think OP means $mathbbR_>2 = (2,infty)$ or $mathbbR_geq 2 = [2,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 10 at 20:53
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! Take the short tour to see how how to get the most from your time here. For typesetting equations please use MathJax.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
2 days ago
$begingroup$
The first statement is true taking f from R+ to R+ but I don't understand what "R> 2" means.
$endgroup$
– user247327
Mar 10 at 20:47
$begingroup$
The first statement is true taking f from R+ to R+ but I don't understand what "R> 2" means.
$endgroup$
– user247327
Mar 10 at 20:47
$begingroup$
I think OP means $mathbbR_>2 = (2,infty)$ or $mathbbR_geq 2 = [2,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 10 at 20:53
$begingroup$
I think OP means $mathbbR_>2 = (2,infty)$ or $mathbbR_geq 2 = [2,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 10 at 20:53
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! Take the short tour to see how how to get the most from your time here. For typesetting equations please use MathJax.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! Take the short tour to see how how to get the most from your time here. For typesetting equations please use MathJax.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
2 days ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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oldest
votes
$begingroup$
I will try to sketch out the argument/steps required to solve this problem fully. I leave it to you to write out the details.
To prove that $f$ is injective, start by assuming that $f(x) = f(y)$ for two $x,y geq 0$. Written explicitly, this means that
$$
sqrtx + 2 = sqrty + 2.
$$
Through simple manipulations, you can deduce that $x = y$. This means that $f$ is injective.
As for the surjectivity of $f$ fix $y in [2,infty)$. Our job is then to prove that there exists $x geq 0$ such that $f(x) = y$. That is, we want $x geq 0$ such that
$$
y = f(x) = sqrtx + 2.
$$
Again, you can check that this $x$ exists. This would prove the surjectivity of $f$.
Now we look at 2. Consider the function
$$
g : mathbbZ to mathbbZ, quad g(n) := n^2 - 8.
$$
To prove that $g$ is not surjective, we must find $m in mathbbZ$ such that $g(n) neq m$ for all $n in mathbbZ$. (Hint: consider $m=0$). As for injectivity, it should be clear that $g(-1) = g(1)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
I will try to sketch out the argument/steps required to solve this problem fully. I leave it to you to write out the details.
To prove that $f$ is injective, start by assuming that $f(x) = f(y)$ for two $x,y geq 0$. Written explicitly, this means that
$$
sqrtx + 2 = sqrty + 2.
$$
Through simple manipulations, you can deduce that $x = y$. This means that $f$ is injective.
As for the surjectivity of $f$ fix $y in [2,infty)$. Our job is then to prove that there exists $x geq 0$ such that $f(x) = y$. That is, we want $x geq 0$ such that
$$
y = f(x) = sqrtx + 2.
$$
Again, you can check that this $x$ exists. This would prove the surjectivity of $f$.
Now we look at 2. Consider the function
$$
g : mathbbZ to mathbbZ, quad g(n) := n^2 - 8.
$$
To prove that $g$ is not surjective, we must find $m in mathbbZ$ such that $g(n) neq m$ for all $n in mathbbZ$. (Hint: consider $m=0$). As for injectivity, it should be clear that $g(-1) = g(1)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I will try to sketch out the argument/steps required to solve this problem fully. I leave it to you to write out the details.
To prove that $f$ is injective, start by assuming that $f(x) = f(y)$ for two $x,y geq 0$. Written explicitly, this means that
$$
sqrtx + 2 = sqrty + 2.
$$
Through simple manipulations, you can deduce that $x = y$. This means that $f$ is injective.
As for the surjectivity of $f$ fix $y in [2,infty)$. Our job is then to prove that there exists $x geq 0$ such that $f(x) = y$. That is, we want $x geq 0$ such that
$$
y = f(x) = sqrtx + 2.
$$
Again, you can check that this $x$ exists. This would prove the surjectivity of $f$.
Now we look at 2. Consider the function
$$
g : mathbbZ to mathbbZ, quad g(n) := n^2 - 8.
$$
To prove that $g$ is not surjective, we must find $m in mathbbZ$ such that $g(n) neq m$ for all $n in mathbbZ$. (Hint: consider $m=0$). As for injectivity, it should be clear that $g(-1) = g(1)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I will try to sketch out the argument/steps required to solve this problem fully. I leave it to you to write out the details.
To prove that $f$ is injective, start by assuming that $f(x) = f(y)$ for two $x,y geq 0$. Written explicitly, this means that
$$
sqrtx + 2 = sqrty + 2.
$$
Through simple manipulations, you can deduce that $x = y$. This means that $f$ is injective.
As for the surjectivity of $f$ fix $y in [2,infty)$. Our job is then to prove that there exists $x geq 0$ such that $f(x) = y$. That is, we want $x geq 0$ such that
$$
y = f(x) = sqrtx + 2.
$$
Again, you can check that this $x$ exists. This would prove the surjectivity of $f$.
Now we look at 2. Consider the function
$$
g : mathbbZ to mathbbZ, quad g(n) := n^2 - 8.
$$
To prove that $g$ is not surjective, we must find $m in mathbbZ$ such that $g(n) neq m$ for all $n in mathbbZ$. (Hint: consider $m=0$). As for injectivity, it should be clear that $g(-1) = g(1)$.
$endgroup$
I will try to sketch out the argument/steps required to solve this problem fully. I leave it to you to write out the details.
To prove that $f$ is injective, start by assuming that $f(x) = f(y)$ for two $x,y geq 0$. Written explicitly, this means that
$$
sqrtx + 2 = sqrty + 2.
$$
Through simple manipulations, you can deduce that $x = y$. This means that $f$ is injective.
As for the surjectivity of $f$ fix $y in [2,infty)$. Our job is then to prove that there exists $x geq 0$ such that $f(x) = y$. That is, we want $x geq 0$ such that
$$
y = f(x) = sqrtx + 2.
$$
Again, you can check that this $x$ exists. This would prove the surjectivity of $f$.
Now we look at 2. Consider the function
$$
g : mathbbZ to mathbbZ, quad g(n) := n^2 - 8.
$$
To prove that $g$ is not surjective, we must find $m in mathbbZ$ such that $g(n) neq m$ for all $n in mathbbZ$. (Hint: consider $m=0$). As for injectivity, it should be clear that $g(-1) = g(1)$.
edited Mar 10 at 20:54
answered Mar 10 at 20:42
rolandcyprolandcyp
714311
714311
add a comment |
add a comment |
Roxy is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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$begingroup$
The first statement is true taking f from R+ to R+ but I don't understand what "R> 2" means.
$endgroup$
– user247327
Mar 10 at 20:47
$begingroup$
I think OP means $mathbbR_>2 = (2,infty)$ or $mathbbR_geq 2 = [2,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 10 at 20:53
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! Take the short tour to see how how to get the most from your time here. For typesetting equations please use MathJax.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
2 days ago