What is an uncountable union of events? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Sequence of events probability proofWhat are the chances of getting $K$ identical outcomes in a row in a series of $Y$ independent events?Probability of a UnionAbout event in sample spaceShow that the collection of all subsets of a finite sample space satisfies the 3 conditions to be called a collection of events.How to find union and intersection of events?Number of possible events is $2^N$ ( $N$ is the number of outcomes )?Populations and Sample SpacesEvents and sample spaceHow can we define the Ordered Union of events?

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What is an uncountable union of events?



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Sequence of events probability proofWhat are the chances of getting $K$ identical outcomes in a row in a series of $Y$ independent events?Probability of a UnionAbout event in sample spaceShow that the collection of all subsets of a finite sample space satisfies the 3 conditions to be called a collection of events.How to find union and intersection of events?Number of possible events is $2^N$ ( $N$ is the number of outcomes )?Populations and Sample SpacesEvents and sample spaceHow can we define the Ordered Union of events?










1












$begingroup$


In DeGroot and Schervish's 'Probability and Statistics'(4th editon), they define the sample space as the union of all outcomes, and an event as a set of possible outcomes.



Definition 1.3.1 on page 5.



"Experiment and Event.



An experiment is any process, real or hypothetical, in which the possible outcomes can be identified ahead of time. An event is a well-defined set of possible outcomes of the experiment.
"



They then list 3 conditions that an event must satisfy, but I'm confused with the 3rd condition.



Condition 3 on page 10:



"If $A_1$, $A_2$, . . . is a countable collection of events, then $bigcup_i=1^infty A_i$ is also an event.



In other words, if we choose to call each set of outcomes in some countable collection an event, we are required to call their union an event also. We do not require that the union of an arbitrary collection of events be an event. To be clear, let I be an arbitrary set that we use to index a general collection of events $A_i : i in I $. The union of the events in this collection is the set of outcomes that are in at least one of the events in the collection. The notation for this union is $bigcup_i in I A_i$. We do not require that $bigcup_i in I A_i$ be an event unless I is countable.



Condition 3 refers to a countable collection of events. We can prove that the condition also applies to every finite collection of events.
"



What confuses me is that, is there an uncountable union of events, that is not an event?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    You are going to want to talk about the probability of events. This is based on measure theory. If you allow the arbitrary construction of events as the uncountable union of other events then you may leave open the possibility of non-measurable sets and so events which do not have a probability.
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Mar 26 at 9:57















1












$begingroup$


In DeGroot and Schervish's 'Probability and Statistics'(4th editon), they define the sample space as the union of all outcomes, and an event as a set of possible outcomes.



Definition 1.3.1 on page 5.



"Experiment and Event.



An experiment is any process, real or hypothetical, in which the possible outcomes can be identified ahead of time. An event is a well-defined set of possible outcomes of the experiment.
"



They then list 3 conditions that an event must satisfy, but I'm confused with the 3rd condition.



Condition 3 on page 10:



"If $A_1$, $A_2$, . . . is a countable collection of events, then $bigcup_i=1^infty A_i$ is also an event.



In other words, if we choose to call each set of outcomes in some countable collection an event, we are required to call their union an event also. We do not require that the union of an arbitrary collection of events be an event. To be clear, let I be an arbitrary set that we use to index a general collection of events $A_i : i in I $. The union of the events in this collection is the set of outcomes that are in at least one of the events in the collection. The notation for this union is $bigcup_i in I A_i$. We do not require that $bigcup_i in I A_i$ be an event unless I is countable.



Condition 3 refers to a countable collection of events. We can prove that the condition also applies to every finite collection of events.
"



What confuses me is that, is there an uncountable union of events, that is not an event?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    You are going to want to talk about the probability of events. This is based on measure theory. If you allow the arbitrary construction of events as the uncountable union of other events then you may leave open the possibility of non-measurable sets and so events which do not have a probability.
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Mar 26 at 9:57













1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


In DeGroot and Schervish's 'Probability and Statistics'(4th editon), they define the sample space as the union of all outcomes, and an event as a set of possible outcomes.



Definition 1.3.1 on page 5.



"Experiment and Event.



An experiment is any process, real or hypothetical, in which the possible outcomes can be identified ahead of time. An event is a well-defined set of possible outcomes of the experiment.
"



They then list 3 conditions that an event must satisfy, but I'm confused with the 3rd condition.



Condition 3 on page 10:



"If $A_1$, $A_2$, . . . is a countable collection of events, then $bigcup_i=1^infty A_i$ is also an event.



In other words, if we choose to call each set of outcomes in some countable collection an event, we are required to call their union an event also. We do not require that the union of an arbitrary collection of events be an event. To be clear, let I be an arbitrary set that we use to index a general collection of events $A_i : i in I $. The union of the events in this collection is the set of outcomes that are in at least one of the events in the collection. The notation for this union is $bigcup_i in I A_i$. We do not require that $bigcup_i in I A_i$ be an event unless I is countable.



Condition 3 refers to a countable collection of events. We can prove that the condition also applies to every finite collection of events.
"



What confuses me is that, is there an uncountable union of events, that is not an event?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




In DeGroot and Schervish's 'Probability and Statistics'(4th editon), they define the sample space as the union of all outcomes, and an event as a set of possible outcomes.



Definition 1.3.1 on page 5.



"Experiment and Event.



An experiment is any process, real or hypothetical, in which the possible outcomes can be identified ahead of time. An event is a well-defined set of possible outcomes of the experiment.
"



They then list 3 conditions that an event must satisfy, but I'm confused with the 3rd condition.



Condition 3 on page 10:



"If $A_1$, $A_2$, . . . is a countable collection of events, then $bigcup_i=1^infty A_i$ is also an event.



In other words, if we choose to call each set of outcomes in some countable collection an event, we are required to call their union an event also. We do not require that the union of an arbitrary collection of events be an event. To be clear, let I be an arbitrary set that we use to index a general collection of events $A_i : i in I $. The union of the events in this collection is the set of outcomes that are in at least one of the events in the collection. The notation for this union is $bigcup_i in I A_i$. We do not require that $bigcup_i in I A_i$ be an event unless I is countable.



Condition 3 refers to a countable collection of events. We can prove that the condition also applies to every finite collection of events.
"



What confuses me is that, is there an uncountable union of events, that is not an event?







probability statistics






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 26 at 9:57







Brent Wagner

















asked Mar 26 at 9:45









Brent WagnerBrent Wagner

304




304











  • $begingroup$
    You are going to want to talk about the probability of events. This is based on measure theory. If you allow the arbitrary construction of events as the uncountable union of other events then you may leave open the possibility of non-measurable sets and so events which do not have a probability.
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Mar 26 at 9:57
















  • $begingroup$
    You are going to want to talk about the probability of events. This is based on measure theory. If you allow the arbitrary construction of events as the uncountable union of other events then you may leave open the possibility of non-measurable sets and so events which do not have a probability.
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Mar 26 at 9:57















$begingroup$
You are going to want to talk about the probability of events. This is based on measure theory. If you allow the arbitrary construction of events as the uncountable union of other events then you may leave open the possibility of non-measurable sets and so events which do not have a probability.
$endgroup$
– Henry
Mar 26 at 9:57




$begingroup$
You are going to want to talk about the probability of events. This is based on measure theory. If you allow the arbitrary construction of events as the uncountable union of other events then you may leave open the possibility of non-measurable sets and so events which do not have a probability.
$endgroup$
– Henry
Mar 26 at 9:57










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Yes, there exist sets that cannot be written as countable unions of events. Unfortunatelly, they are not constructible, and you need the axiom of choice to prove them.



An example of such sets are the Vitali sets, which cannot be written as countable unions of intervals.




Note: this is the part of probability theory that most coincides with a field called measure theory. In measure theory, we are interested in whether sets are "measurable" or not. If the "measure" of a space is precisely $1$, then we call that space a probability space, and a "measurable set" in a probability space is called an "event". So, under some assumptions, "non-events" are the same thing as "non-measurable sets".



In short, if you are interested in probability theory, I highly suggest you take a class on measure theory sometime in the future. It makes probability much easier and more interesting at the same time.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    2












    $begingroup$

    Yes. Assuming the Axiom of Choice (which is a very reasonable and common thing to do, but not universal), you can construct unions of events which, if allowed to be events themselves, will have a problematic probability of ocurring. Basically, it can't be $0$ and it can't be positive.



    To see it in action, let's say your experiment is to pick a point uniformly at random on a circle. Then any point is an event. Using the AoC, we can construct (or more correctly, we can prove the existence of) a set of points $mathscr A_0$ on the circle with a special property: Rotating the set along the circle by any rational angle $alphain (0^circ, 360^circ)$ results in a new set of points $mathscr A_alpha$. None of these $mathscr A_alpha$ have any points in common with any of the others, but together they cover the entire circle.



    So, if we were to assign some probability $p$ to picking a point in $mathscr A_0$, then by rotational symmetry the same probability should apply to any of the $mathscr A_alpha$. And since they are all pairwise disjoint, and they together cover the circle, the sum of all those $p$'s should be $1$. Thus we have
    $$
    sum_alphain [0, 360)cap Bbb Qp = 1
    $$

    But if $p$ is $0$, the sum is $0$, and if $p$ is positive, then the sum is infinite. So it is impossible to assign a probability to this union $mathscr A_0$, and therefore we are better off not calling it an event.






    share|cite|improve this answer











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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

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      0












      $begingroup$

      Yes, there exist sets that cannot be written as countable unions of events. Unfortunatelly, they are not constructible, and you need the axiom of choice to prove them.



      An example of such sets are the Vitali sets, which cannot be written as countable unions of intervals.




      Note: this is the part of probability theory that most coincides with a field called measure theory. In measure theory, we are interested in whether sets are "measurable" or not. If the "measure" of a space is precisely $1$, then we call that space a probability space, and a "measurable set" in a probability space is called an "event". So, under some assumptions, "non-events" are the same thing as "non-measurable sets".



      In short, if you are interested in probability theory, I highly suggest you take a class on measure theory sometime in the future. It makes probability much easier and more interesting at the same time.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$

















        0












        $begingroup$

        Yes, there exist sets that cannot be written as countable unions of events. Unfortunatelly, they are not constructible, and you need the axiom of choice to prove them.



        An example of such sets are the Vitali sets, which cannot be written as countable unions of intervals.




        Note: this is the part of probability theory that most coincides with a field called measure theory. In measure theory, we are interested in whether sets are "measurable" or not. If the "measure" of a space is precisely $1$, then we call that space a probability space, and a "measurable set" in a probability space is called an "event". So, under some assumptions, "non-events" are the same thing as "non-measurable sets".



        In short, if you are interested in probability theory, I highly suggest you take a class on measure theory sometime in the future. It makes probability much easier and more interesting at the same time.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Yes, there exist sets that cannot be written as countable unions of events. Unfortunatelly, they are not constructible, and you need the axiom of choice to prove them.



          An example of such sets are the Vitali sets, which cannot be written as countable unions of intervals.




          Note: this is the part of probability theory that most coincides with a field called measure theory. In measure theory, we are interested in whether sets are "measurable" or not. If the "measure" of a space is precisely $1$, then we call that space a probability space, and a "measurable set" in a probability space is called an "event". So, under some assumptions, "non-events" are the same thing as "non-measurable sets".



          In short, if you are interested in probability theory, I highly suggest you take a class on measure theory sometime in the future. It makes probability much easier and more interesting at the same time.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Yes, there exist sets that cannot be written as countable unions of events. Unfortunatelly, they are not constructible, and you need the axiom of choice to prove them.



          An example of such sets are the Vitali sets, which cannot be written as countable unions of intervals.




          Note: this is the part of probability theory that most coincides with a field called measure theory. In measure theory, we are interested in whether sets are "measurable" or not. If the "measure" of a space is precisely $1$, then we call that space a probability space, and a "measurable set" in a probability space is called an "event". So, under some assumptions, "non-events" are the same thing as "non-measurable sets".



          In short, if you are interested in probability theory, I highly suggest you take a class on measure theory sometime in the future. It makes probability much easier and more interesting at the same time.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 26 at 9:53









          5xum5xum

          92.7k394162




          92.7k394162





















              2












              $begingroup$

              Yes. Assuming the Axiom of Choice (which is a very reasonable and common thing to do, but not universal), you can construct unions of events which, if allowed to be events themselves, will have a problematic probability of ocurring. Basically, it can't be $0$ and it can't be positive.



              To see it in action, let's say your experiment is to pick a point uniformly at random on a circle. Then any point is an event. Using the AoC, we can construct (or more correctly, we can prove the existence of) a set of points $mathscr A_0$ on the circle with a special property: Rotating the set along the circle by any rational angle $alphain (0^circ, 360^circ)$ results in a new set of points $mathscr A_alpha$. None of these $mathscr A_alpha$ have any points in common with any of the others, but together they cover the entire circle.



              So, if we were to assign some probability $p$ to picking a point in $mathscr A_0$, then by rotational symmetry the same probability should apply to any of the $mathscr A_alpha$. And since they are all pairwise disjoint, and they together cover the circle, the sum of all those $p$'s should be $1$. Thus we have
              $$
              sum_alphain [0, 360)cap Bbb Qp = 1
              $$

              But if $p$ is $0$, the sum is $0$, and if $p$ is positive, then the sum is infinite. So it is impossible to assign a probability to this union $mathscr A_0$, and therefore we are better off not calling it an event.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                2












                $begingroup$

                Yes. Assuming the Axiom of Choice (which is a very reasonable and common thing to do, but not universal), you can construct unions of events which, if allowed to be events themselves, will have a problematic probability of ocurring. Basically, it can't be $0$ and it can't be positive.



                To see it in action, let's say your experiment is to pick a point uniformly at random on a circle. Then any point is an event. Using the AoC, we can construct (or more correctly, we can prove the existence of) a set of points $mathscr A_0$ on the circle with a special property: Rotating the set along the circle by any rational angle $alphain (0^circ, 360^circ)$ results in a new set of points $mathscr A_alpha$. None of these $mathscr A_alpha$ have any points in common with any of the others, but together they cover the entire circle.



                So, if we were to assign some probability $p$ to picking a point in $mathscr A_0$, then by rotational symmetry the same probability should apply to any of the $mathscr A_alpha$. And since they are all pairwise disjoint, and they together cover the circle, the sum of all those $p$'s should be $1$. Thus we have
                $$
                sum_alphain [0, 360)cap Bbb Qp = 1
                $$

                But if $p$ is $0$, the sum is $0$, and if $p$ is positive, then the sum is infinite. So it is impossible to assign a probability to this union $mathscr A_0$, and therefore we are better off not calling it an event.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  Yes. Assuming the Axiom of Choice (which is a very reasonable and common thing to do, but not universal), you can construct unions of events which, if allowed to be events themselves, will have a problematic probability of ocurring. Basically, it can't be $0$ and it can't be positive.



                  To see it in action, let's say your experiment is to pick a point uniformly at random on a circle. Then any point is an event. Using the AoC, we can construct (or more correctly, we can prove the existence of) a set of points $mathscr A_0$ on the circle with a special property: Rotating the set along the circle by any rational angle $alphain (0^circ, 360^circ)$ results in a new set of points $mathscr A_alpha$. None of these $mathscr A_alpha$ have any points in common with any of the others, but together they cover the entire circle.



                  So, if we were to assign some probability $p$ to picking a point in $mathscr A_0$, then by rotational symmetry the same probability should apply to any of the $mathscr A_alpha$. And since they are all pairwise disjoint, and they together cover the circle, the sum of all those $p$'s should be $1$. Thus we have
                  $$
                  sum_alphain [0, 360)cap Bbb Qp = 1
                  $$

                  But if $p$ is $0$, the sum is $0$, and if $p$ is positive, then the sum is infinite. So it is impossible to assign a probability to this union $mathscr A_0$, and therefore we are better off not calling it an event.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Yes. Assuming the Axiom of Choice (which is a very reasonable and common thing to do, but not universal), you can construct unions of events which, if allowed to be events themselves, will have a problematic probability of ocurring. Basically, it can't be $0$ and it can't be positive.



                  To see it in action, let's say your experiment is to pick a point uniformly at random on a circle. Then any point is an event. Using the AoC, we can construct (or more correctly, we can prove the existence of) a set of points $mathscr A_0$ on the circle with a special property: Rotating the set along the circle by any rational angle $alphain (0^circ, 360^circ)$ results in a new set of points $mathscr A_alpha$. None of these $mathscr A_alpha$ have any points in common with any of the others, but together they cover the entire circle.



                  So, if we were to assign some probability $p$ to picking a point in $mathscr A_0$, then by rotational symmetry the same probability should apply to any of the $mathscr A_alpha$. And since they are all pairwise disjoint, and they together cover the circle, the sum of all those $p$'s should be $1$. Thus we have
                  $$
                  sum_alphain [0, 360)cap Bbb Qp = 1
                  $$

                  But if $p$ is $0$, the sum is $0$, and if $p$ is positive, then the sum is infinite. So it is impossible to assign a probability to this union $mathscr A_0$, and therefore we are better off not calling it an event.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Mar 26 at 10:09

























                  answered Mar 26 at 9:53









                  ArthurArthur

                  123k7122211




                  123k7122211



























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