Does every covariant functor on module category preserve inclusion? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Covariant functor, and left exactAn example of covariant functor.Action of the center of an enriched category on a module as an enriched functorCovariant Power Set Functor being injective on arrows.Subcategory of category of Module satisfies SSA?Equivalent definitions of contravariant functor in category theoryContarvariant functor and opposite categoryFunctors respect inclusion?fibered category associated to a pseudo functorIs the identity functor naturally isomorphic to a covariant dual functor?
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Does every covariant functor on module category preserve inclusion?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Covariant functor, and left exactAn example of covariant functor.Action of the center of an enriched category on a module as an enriched functorCovariant Power Set Functor being injective on arrows.Subcategory of category of Module satisfies SSA?Equivalent definitions of contravariant functor in category theoryContarvariant functor and opposite categoryFunctors respect inclusion?fibered category associated to a pseudo functorIs the identity functor naturally isomorphic to a covariant dual functor?
$begingroup$
Does every covariant functor $F : ~_RmathcalM rightarrow mathcalC$ on module category $_RmathcalM$ preserve inclusion? I have proceeded in the following way.
Suppose $A subseteq B$ in $_RmathcalM$ then the natural inclusion map $i$ acts as an identity $1_A$ on $A$, then $F(i)$ must act as an identity on $F(A)$, therefore $F(A) subseteq F(B)$.
But clearly the functor $mathbbZ_n otimes_mathbbZ -$ doesnot preserve the inclusion $mathbbZ subseteq mathbbQ$. Am I overlooking something? Any help would be appreciated.
category-theory modules homological-algebra abelian-categories functors
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|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Does every covariant functor $F : ~_RmathcalM rightarrow mathcalC$ on module category $_RmathcalM$ preserve inclusion? I have proceeded in the following way.
Suppose $A subseteq B$ in $_RmathcalM$ then the natural inclusion map $i$ acts as an identity $1_A$ on $A$, then $F(i)$ must act as an identity on $F(A)$, therefore $F(A) subseteq F(B)$.
But clearly the functor $mathbbZ_n otimes_mathbbZ -$ doesnot preserve the inclusion $mathbbZ subseteq mathbbQ$. Am I overlooking something? Any help would be appreciated.
category-theory modules homological-algebra abelian-categories functors
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
It doesn't make sense to say it "acts as an identity on $A$". Or more precisely, it does, but that has no reason to be preserved by a functor
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:08
$begingroup$
@Max But the inclusion map $i$ works as the identity map $1_A$ on $A$, and by the definition of functor $F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ therefore $F(i) : F(A) rightarrow F(B)$ acts as identity map on $F(A)$. Isn't it?
$endgroup$
– jean_23
Mar 26 at 9:32
$begingroup$
Please do not post a question simultaneously on MathSE and MathOverflow. In this case, I think this site is more appropriate than MO, so I would advise you to delete the MO version and keep this question.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:40
$begingroup$
See also this Math Meta post and this MO Meta post on the topic.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:44
1
$begingroup$
$F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ is true but that doesn't imply "working on $A$ as the identity" is preserved under $F$, because "working on $A$ as the identity" is about evaluating certain arrows on certain elements, which makes no sense categorically. Try to write out a formal proof of what you are saying (that is, without using intuitive words such as "acts as the identity") and you'll see that you are unable to do so
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:58
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Does every covariant functor $F : ~_RmathcalM rightarrow mathcalC$ on module category $_RmathcalM$ preserve inclusion? I have proceeded in the following way.
Suppose $A subseteq B$ in $_RmathcalM$ then the natural inclusion map $i$ acts as an identity $1_A$ on $A$, then $F(i)$ must act as an identity on $F(A)$, therefore $F(A) subseteq F(B)$.
But clearly the functor $mathbbZ_n otimes_mathbbZ -$ doesnot preserve the inclusion $mathbbZ subseteq mathbbQ$. Am I overlooking something? Any help would be appreciated.
category-theory modules homological-algebra abelian-categories functors
$endgroup$
Does every covariant functor $F : ~_RmathcalM rightarrow mathcalC$ on module category $_RmathcalM$ preserve inclusion? I have proceeded in the following way.
Suppose $A subseteq B$ in $_RmathcalM$ then the natural inclusion map $i$ acts as an identity $1_A$ on $A$, then $F(i)$ must act as an identity on $F(A)$, therefore $F(A) subseteq F(B)$.
But clearly the functor $mathbbZ_n otimes_mathbbZ -$ doesnot preserve the inclusion $mathbbZ subseteq mathbbQ$. Am I overlooking something? Any help would be appreciated.
category-theory modules homological-algebra abelian-categories functors
category-theory modules homological-algebra abelian-categories functors
edited Mar 26 at 9:32
jean_23
asked Mar 26 at 8:15
jean_23jean_23
84
84
$begingroup$
It doesn't make sense to say it "acts as an identity on $A$". Or more precisely, it does, but that has no reason to be preserved by a functor
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:08
$begingroup$
@Max But the inclusion map $i$ works as the identity map $1_A$ on $A$, and by the definition of functor $F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ therefore $F(i) : F(A) rightarrow F(B)$ acts as identity map on $F(A)$. Isn't it?
$endgroup$
– jean_23
Mar 26 at 9:32
$begingroup$
Please do not post a question simultaneously on MathSE and MathOverflow. In this case, I think this site is more appropriate than MO, so I would advise you to delete the MO version and keep this question.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:40
$begingroup$
See also this Math Meta post and this MO Meta post on the topic.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:44
1
$begingroup$
$F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ is true but that doesn't imply "working on $A$ as the identity" is preserved under $F$, because "working on $A$ as the identity" is about evaluating certain arrows on certain elements, which makes no sense categorically. Try to write out a formal proof of what you are saying (that is, without using intuitive words such as "acts as the identity") and you'll see that you are unable to do so
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:58
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
It doesn't make sense to say it "acts as an identity on $A$". Or more precisely, it does, but that has no reason to be preserved by a functor
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:08
$begingroup$
@Max But the inclusion map $i$ works as the identity map $1_A$ on $A$, and by the definition of functor $F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ therefore $F(i) : F(A) rightarrow F(B)$ acts as identity map on $F(A)$. Isn't it?
$endgroup$
– jean_23
Mar 26 at 9:32
$begingroup$
Please do not post a question simultaneously on MathSE and MathOverflow. In this case, I think this site is more appropriate than MO, so I would advise you to delete the MO version and keep this question.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:40
$begingroup$
See also this Math Meta post and this MO Meta post on the topic.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:44
1
$begingroup$
$F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ is true but that doesn't imply "working on $A$ as the identity" is preserved under $F$, because "working on $A$ as the identity" is about evaluating certain arrows on certain elements, which makes no sense categorically. Try to write out a formal proof of what you are saying (that is, without using intuitive words such as "acts as the identity") and you'll see that you are unable to do so
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:58
$begingroup$
It doesn't make sense to say it "acts as an identity on $A$". Or more precisely, it does, but that has no reason to be preserved by a functor
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:08
$begingroup$
It doesn't make sense to say it "acts as an identity on $A$". Or more precisely, it does, but that has no reason to be preserved by a functor
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:08
$begingroup$
@Max But the inclusion map $i$ works as the identity map $1_A$ on $A$, and by the definition of functor $F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ therefore $F(i) : F(A) rightarrow F(B)$ acts as identity map on $F(A)$. Isn't it?
$endgroup$
– jean_23
Mar 26 at 9:32
$begingroup$
@Max But the inclusion map $i$ works as the identity map $1_A$ on $A$, and by the definition of functor $F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ therefore $F(i) : F(A) rightarrow F(B)$ acts as identity map on $F(A)$. Isn't it?
$endgroup$
– jean_23
Mar 26 at 9:32
$begingroup$
Please do not post a question simultaneously on MathSE and MathOverflow. In this case, I think this site is more appropriate than MO, so I would advise you to delete the MO version and keep this question.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:40
$begingroup$
Please do not post a question simultaneously on MathSE and MathOverflow. In this case, I think this site is more appropriate than MO, so I would advise you to delete the MO version and keep this question.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:40
$begingroup$
See also this Math Meta post and this MO Meta post on the topic.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:44
$begingroup$
See also this Math Meta post and this MO Meta post on the topic.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:44
1
1
$begingroup$
$F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ is true but that doesn't imply "working on $A$ as the identity" is preserved under $F$, because "working on $A$ as the identity" is about evaluating certain arrows on certain elements, which makes no sense categorically. Try to write out a formal proof of what you are saying (that is, without using intuitive words such as "acts as the identity") and you'll see that you are unable to do so
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:58
$begingroup$
$F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ is true but that doesn't imply "working on $A$ as the identity" is preserved under $F$, because "working on $A$ as the identity" is about evaluating certain arrows on certain elements, which makes no sense categorically. Try to write out a formal proof of what you are saying (that is, without using intuitive words such as "acts as the identity") and you'll see that you are unable to do so
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:58
|
show 1 more comment
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$begingroup$
It doesn't make sense to say it "acts as an identity on $A$". Or more precisely, it does, but that has no reason to be preserved by a functor
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:08
$begingroup$
@Max But the inclusion map $i$ works as the identity map $1_A$ on $A$, and by the definition of functor $F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ therefore $F(i) : F(A) rightarrow F(B)$ acts as identity map on $F(A)$. Isn't it?
$endgroup$
– jean_23
Mar 26 at 9:32
$begingroup$
Please do not post a question simultaneously on MathSE and MathOverflow. In this case, I think this site is more appropriate than MO, so I would advise you to delete the MO version and keep this question.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:40
$begingroup$
See also this Math Meta post and this MO Meta post on the topic.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Mar 26 at 9:44
1
$begingroup$
$F(1_A) = 1_F(A)$ is true but that doesn't imply "working on $A$ as the identity" is preserved under $F$, because "working on $A$ as the identity" is about evaluating certain arrows on certain elements, which makes no sense categorically. Try to write out a formal proof of what you are saying (that is, without using intuitive words such as "acts as the identity") and you'll see that you are unable to do so
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 26 at 9:58