Proving $g'(z)=frac12piiint_Cfracg(u)du(u-z)^2$ for $g(z)$ holomorphic in and on contour $C$, and $z$ in $C$'s interioris $f$ analytic inside $C?$$int_Cdfracf'(z)z-z_0=int_Cdfracf(z)(z-z_0)^2$Complex contour integral and partial fractionsContour integral - $int_C fraclog zz-z_0 dz$ - Contradiction$int_-infty^infty fracdzz - z_0$ by contour integrationContour integral for finding $int_0^inftyfracln x(x+a)^2+b^2dx$Proving the function $g$, defined by an integral, is holomorphic$1$-$1$ holomorphic function on a simple closed contour is $1$-$1$ inside the contour?Proof involving contour integralsUsing the Cauchy-Goursat theorem to prove a statement

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Proving $g'(z)=frac12piiint_Cfracg(u)du(u-z)^2$ for $g(z)$ holomorphic in and on contour $C$, and $z$ in $C$'s interior


is $f$ analytic inside $C?$$int_Cdfracf'(z)z-z_0=int_Cdfracf(z)(z-z_0)^2$Complex contour integral and partial fractionsContour integral - $int_C fraclog zz-z_0 dz$ - Contradiction$int_-infty^infty fracdzz - z_0$ by contour integrationContour integral for finding $int_0^inftyfracln x(x+a)^2+b^2dx$Proving the function $g$, defined by an integral, is holomorphic$1$-$1$ holomorphic function on a simple closed contour is $1$-$1$ inside the contour?Proof involving contour integralsUsing the Cauchy-Goursat theorem to prove a statement













0












$begingroup$



Prove that if $g(z)$ is holomorphic everywhere inside and on a simple closed
contour $C$, taken in a positive sense, and $z$ is any point interior to $C$, then
$$g'(z)=dfrac12piiint_Cdfracg(u)du(u-z)^2$$




So far, I know this: If you let $f$ be holomorphic everywhere inside and on a simple closed contour $C$ taken in the positive sense, and if $z_0$ is any point interior to $C$, then



$$f(z_0)=frac12piiint_Cfracf(z)dzz-z_0$$



However, I do not know how to attempt this proof using the knowledge I currently have.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Why was this edited to remove the original question?
    $endgroup$
    – orion
    Mar 23 at 10:54










  • $begingroup$
    Rolled-back to the original question. Do not change the nature of a question so dramatically, especially after receiving an answer; doing so is inconsiderate to answerers whose responses suddenly appear irrelevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Mar 23 at 11:01










  • $begingroup$
    BTW: If you really are interested in "a proof of 1+1", see Whitehead and Russell's Principia Mathematica, which takes only about 360 pages to arrive at a proposition from which the relation "$1+1=2$" follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Mar 23 at 11:04
















0












$begingroup$



Prove that if $g(z)$ is holomorphic everywhere inside and on a simple closed
contour $C$, taken in a positive sense, and $z$ is any point interior to $C$, then
$$g'(z)=dfrac12piiint_Cdfracg(u)du(u-z)^2$$




So far, I know this: If you let $f$ be holomorphic everywhere inside and on a simple closed contour $C$ taken in the positive sense, and if $z_0$ is any point interior to $C$, then



$$f(z_0)=frac12piiint_Cfracf(z)dzz-z_0$$



However, I do not know how to attempt this proof using the knowledge I currently have.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Why was this edited to remove the original question?
    $endgroup$
    – orion
    Mar 23 at 10:54










  • $begingroup$
    Rolled-back to the original question. Do not change the nature of a question so dramatically, especially after receiving an answer; doing so is inconsiderate to answerers whose responses suddenly appear irrelevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Mar 23 at 11:01










  • $begingroup$
    BTW: If you really are interested in "a proof of 1+1", see Whitehead and Russell's Principia Mathematica, which takes only about 360 pages to arrive at a proposition from which the relation "$1+1=2$" follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Mar 23 at 11:04














0












0








0





$begingroup$



Prove that if $g(z)$ is holomorphic everywhere inside and on a simple closed
contour $C$, taken in a positive sense, and $z$ is any point interior to $C$, then
$$g'(z)=dfrac12piiint_Cdfracg(u)du(u-z)^2$$




So far, I know this: If you let $f$ be holomorphic everywhere inside and on a simple closed contour $C$ taken in the positive sense, and if $z_0$ is any point interior to $C$, then



$$f(z_0)=frac12piiint_Cfracf(z)dzz-z_0$$



However, I do not know how to attempt this proof using the knowledge I currently have.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Prove that if $g(z)$ is holomorphic everywhere inside and on a simple closed
contour $C$, taken in a positive sense, and $z$ is any point interior to $C$, then
$$g'(z)=dfrac12piiint_Cdfracg(u)du(u-z)^2$$




So far, I know this: If you let $f$ be holomorphic everywhere inside and on a simple closed contour $C$ taken in the positive sense, and if $z_0$ is any point interior to $C$, then



$$f(z_0)=frac12piiint_Cfracf(z)dzz-z_0$$



However, I do not know how to attempt this proof using the knowledge I currently have.







complex-analysis contour-integration holomorphic-functions cauchy-integral-formula






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 23 at 11:09









Blue

49.4k870157




49.4k870157










asked Mar 21 at 13:09







user504484


















  • $begingroup$
    Why was this edited to remove the original question?
    $endgroup$
    – orion
    Mar 23 at 10:54










  • $begingroup$
    Rolled-back to the original question. Do not change the nature of a question so dramatically, especially after receiving an answer; doing so is inconsiderate to answerers whose responses suddenly appear irrelevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Mar 23 at 11:01










  • $begingroup$
    BTW: If you really are interested in "a proof of 1+1", see Whitehead and Russell's Principia Mathematica, which takes only about 360 pages to arrive at a proposition from which the relation "$1+1=2$" follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Mar 23 at 11:04

















  • $begingroup$
    Why was this edited to remove the original question?
    $endgroup$
    – orion
    Mar 23 at 10:54










  • $begingroup$
    Rolled-back to the original question. Do not change the nature of a question so dramatically, especially after receiving an answer; doing so is inconsiderate to answerers whose responses suddenly appear irrelevant.
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Mar 23 at 11:01










  • $begingroup$
    BTW: If you really are interested in "a proof of 1+1", see Whitehead and Russell's Principia Mathematica, which takes only about 360 pages to arrive at a proposition from which the relation "$1+1=2$" follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Mar 23 at 11:04
















$begingroup$
Why was this edited to remove the original question?
$endgroup$
– orion
Mar 23 at 10:54




$begingroup$
Why was this edited to remove the original question?
$endgroup$
– orion
Mar 23 at 10:54












$begingroup$
Rolled-back to the original question. Do not change the nature of a question so dramatically, especially after receiving an answer; doing so is inconsiderate to answerers whose responses suddenly appear irrelevant.
$endgroup$
– Blue
Mar 23 at 11:01




$begingroup$
Rolled-back to the original question. Do not change the nature of a question so dramatically, especially after receiving an answer; doing so is inconsiderate to answerers whose responses suddenly appear irrelevant.
$endgroup$
– Blue
Mar 23 at 11:01












$begingroup$
BTW: If you really are interested in "a proof of 1+1", see Whitehead and Russell's Principia Mathematica, which takes only about 360 pages to arrive at a proposition from which the relation "$1+1=2$" follows.
$endgroup$
– Blue
Mar 23 at 11:04





$begingroup$
BTW: If you really are interested in "a proof of 1+1", see Whitehead and Russell's Principia Mathematica, which takes only about 360 pages to arrive at a proposition from which the relation "$1+1=2$" follows.
$endgroup$
– Blue
Mar 23 at 11:04











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

For another approach (without power series), we use the definition of derivative. You want to compute



$f'(z_0)= lim_z to z_0 frac1z - z_0 left [ frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)w - z : dw - frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)w - z_0 : dw right ].$



The right hand side of this simplifies to



$lim_zto z_0 frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw.$



Now the issue is the interchange of the integral with the limit, for if this is valid, then you get



$lim_zto z_0 frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw=frac12pi i int_gamma lim_zto z_0fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw=int_gammafracf(w)(w - z_0)^2 : dw$, as desired.



All that remains therefore is to justify the limit/integral switch: a fancy way would be to use the dominated convergence theorem, which applies since $f$ is bounded on $gamma$ and there is a number $delta$ such that $d(z_0,gamma)=delta>0$ and we may also assume that $d(z,gamma)>delta$ for all $z$ close enough to $z_0.$



But you can also argue directly: Let $Mmax_win gamma |, delta$ as in the above remark and $ell(gamma)$ the length of $gamma.$ Then,



$beginalignleft |int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw-int_gammafracf(w)(w - z_0)^2 : dwright |le fracMdeltacdot left |int_gamma frac1(w - z) : dw-int_gammafrac1(w - z_0) : dwright |le fracMdeltacdot int_gammaleft|fracz-z_0(w-z)(w-z_0)right|dwle fracMdelta^3int_gamma|z-z_0|dwle fracMcdot ell((gamma)delta^3|z-z_0|endalign$



To finish, let $zto z_0.$



For the $kth$ derivative, this calculation goes through virtually unchanged.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    To prove the general case you can take limits of difference quotients and use induction (or expand the Cauchy integral in a power series as I do below). In this case, since you only want the formula for the first derivative, you can simply pass the derivative through the integral; namely,
    $$f^prime(z) = fracddzleft(frac12pi iint_C fracf(zeta)zeta - z dzeta right) = frac12pi iint_C fracddzleft(fracf(zeta)zeta - zright) dzeta.$$



    Edit: The final step is to compute
    $$fracddzleft(fracf(zeta)zeta-zright) = f(zeta)fracddzleft(frac1zeta-zright) = fracf(zeta)(zeta-z)^2.$$



    Edit 2: I will actually not do the inductive proof, but rather a proof based on expanding a Cauchy integral as a power series. If you want to see the inductive proof, there are plenty of websites with said proof.



    First, note that we can write
    $$f(z) = frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)zeta - z dzeta,$$



    Fix a point $z_0$ off $gamma$, set $R = mathrmdist(z_0,gamma)$ and let $z$ be a point satisfying $lvert z - z_0 rvert < R$. Notice that
    $$frac1zeta-z = frac1(zeta - z_0) - (z - z_0) = frac1zeta - z_0left(frac11-fracz-z_0zeta-z_0right) = sum_n=0^infty frac(z-z_0)^n(zeta-z_0)^n+1,$$
    where the power series converges locally uniformly wrt $zeta$ in $bigglvertfracz-z_0zeta-z_0biggrvert<1$ and so converges uniformly on $gamma$. Since $f$ is bounded on $gamma$, the series
    $$frac12pi isum_n=0^infty fracf(zeta)(z-z_0)^n(zeta-z_0)^n+1$$
    converges uniformly on $gamma$ to $fracf(zeta)zeta - z$. Therefore, we can integrate the power series term-by-term over $gamma$:
    $$f(z) = sum_n=0^infty left(frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzetaright) (z-z_0)^n.$$
    Therefore, the terms $frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzeta$ are the coefficients in the power series for $f$ centered about $z=z_0$ and therefore
    $$frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzeta = fracf^(n)(z_0)n!.$$



    Edit 3: This is a bit of a tangent, so feel free to skip it if you aren't in the mood to indulge me. One reason why I like (and chose to present) this proof is that, in addition to proving the Cauchy integral formula (for derivatives), it actually can (very clearly) tell us something about Cauchy integrals in general. Let $gamma:[a,b] to mathbbC$ be a piecewise-$C^1$ closed curve and let $phi: G supset gamma to mathbbC$ (slightly abusing notation) be continuous on $gamma$. Define
    $$F(z) = int_gamma fracphi(zeta)zeta - z dzeta.$$
    Then, the (essentially) same proof as above shows that $F$ is analytic on $mathbbCsetminusgamma$. So, we can start with a function which is merely continuous, define its Cauchy integral and get back an analytic function. It also, of course, tells us that all holomorphic functions are analytic.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      How would I go about doing this?
      $endgroup$
      – user504484
      Mar 21 at 14:30










    • $begingroup$
      @user55552 I assume you were asking about how to compute the derivative as that is the only step left. I edited my answer to address this. Does that make sense now?
      $endgroup$
      – Gary Moon
      Mar 21 at 14:41










    • $begingroup$
      Thank you for this! How would you do this by proof by induction as this is what was stated in your answer?
      $endgroup$
      – user504484
      Mar 21 at 14:47










    • $begingroup$
      You would only need to utilize induction if you wanted to prove the general case; namely that $forall n in mathbbZ_geq 0$, we have $f^(n)(z) = fracn!2pi iint_C f(zeta) (zeta - z)^-n-1 dzeta$.
      $endgroup$
      – Gary Moon
      Mar 21 at 14:50










    • $begingroup$
      Could you please outline the steps that are needed to prove this statement?
      $endgroup$
      – user504484
      Mar 21 at 14:54











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    2 Answers
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    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    For another approach (without power series), we use the definition of derivative. You want to compute



    $f'(z_0)= lim_z to z_0 frac1z - z_0 left [ frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)w - z : dw - frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)w - z_0 : dw right ].$



    The right hand side of this simplifies to



    $lim_zto z_0 frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw.$



    Now the issue is the interchange of the integral with the limit, for if this is valid, then you get



    $lim_zto z_0 frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw=frac12pi i int_gamma lim_zto z_0fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw=int_gammafracf(w)(w - z_0)^2 : dw$, as desired.



    All that remains therefore is to justify the limit/integral switch: a fancy way would be to use the dominated convergence theorem, which applies since $f$ is bounded on $gamma$ and there is a number $delta$ such that $d(z_0,gamma)=delta>0$ and we may also assume that $d(z,gamma)>delta$ for all $z$ close enough to $z_0.$



    But you can also argue directly: Let $Mmax_win gamma |, delta$ as in the above remark and $ell(gamma)$ the length of $gamma.$ Then,



    $beginalignleft |int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw-int_gammafracf(w)(w - z_0)^2 : dwright |le fracMdeltacdot left |int_gamma frac1(w - z) : dw-int_gammafrac1(w - z_0) : dwright |le fracMdeltacdot int_gammaleft|fracz-z_0(w-z)(w-z_0)right|dwle fracMdelta^3int_gamma|z-z_0|dwle fracMcdot ell((gamma)delta^3|z-z_0|endalign$



    To finish, let $zto z_0.$



    For the $kth$ derivative, this calculation goes through virtually unchanged.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      0












      $begingroup$

      For another approach (without power series), we use the definition of derivative. You want to compute



      $f'(z_0)= lim_z to z_0 frac1z - z_0 left [ frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)w - z : dw - frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)w - z_0 : dw right ].$



      The right hand side of this simplifies to



      $lim_zto z_0 frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw.$



      Now the issue is the interchange of the integral with the limit, for if this is valid, then you get



      $lim_zto z_0 frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw=frac12pi i int_gamma lim_zto z_0fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw=int_gammafracf(w)(w - z_0)^2 : dw$, as desired.



      All that remains therefore is to justify the limit/integral switch: a fancy way would be to use the dominated convergence theorem, which applies since $f$ is bounded on $gamma$ and there is a number $delta$ such that $d(z_0,gamma)=delta>0$ and we may also assume that $d(z,gamma)>delta$ for all $z$ close enough to $z_0.$



      But you can also argue directly: Let $Mmax_win gamma |, delta$ as in the above remark and $ell(gamma)$ the length of $gamma.$ Then,



      $beginalignleft |int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw-int_gammafracf(w)(w - z_0)^2 : dwright |le fracMdeltacdot left |int_gamma frac1(w - z) : dw-int_gammafrac1(w - z_0) : dwright |le fracMdeltacdot int_gammaleft|fracz-z_0(w-z)(w-z_0)right|dwle fracMdelta^3int_gamma|z-z_0|dwle fracMcdot ell((gamma)delta^3|z-z_0|endalign$



      To finish, let $zto z_0.$



      For the $kth$ derivative, this calculation goes through virtually unchanged.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        For another approach (without power series), we use the definition of derivative. You want to compute



        $f'(z_0)= lim_z to z_0 frac1z - z_0 left [ frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)w - z : dw - frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)w - z_0 : dw right ].$



        The right hand side of this simplifies to



        $lim_zto z_0 frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw.$



        Now the issue is the interchange of the integral with the limit, for if this is valid, then you get



        $lim_zto z_0 frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw=frac12pi i int_gamma lim_zto z_0fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw=int_gammafracf(w)(w - z_0)^2 : dw$, as desired.



        All that remains therefore is to justify the limit/integral switch: a fancy way would be to use the dominated convergence theorem, which applies since $f$ is bounded on $gamma$ and there is a number $delta$ such that $d(z_0,gamma)=delta>0$ and we may also assume that $d(z,gamma)>delta$ for all $z$ close enough to $z_0.$



        But you can also argue directly: Let $Mmax_win gamma |, delta$ as in the above remark and $ell(gamma)$ the length of $gamma.$ Then,



        $beginalignleft |int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw-int_gammafracf(w)(w - z_0)^2 : dwright |le fracMdeltacdot left |int_gamma frac1(w - z) : dw-int_gammafrac1(w - z_0) : dwright |le fracMdeltacdot int_gammaleft|fracz-z_0(w-z)(w-z_0)right|dwle fracMdelta^3int_gamma|z-z_0|dwle fracMcdot ell((gamma)delta^3|z-z_0|endalign$



        To finish, let $zto z_0.$



        For the $kth$ derivative, this calculation goes through virtually unchanged.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        For another approach (without power series), we use the definition of derivative. You want to compute



        $f'(z_0)= lim_z to z_0 frac1z - z_0 left [ frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)w - z : dw - frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)w - z_0 : dw right ].$



        The right hand side of this simplifies to



        $lim_zto z_0 frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw.$



        Now the issue is the interchange of the integral with the limit, for if this is valid, then you get



        $lim_zto z_0 frac12pi i int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw=frac12pi i int_gamma lim_zto z_0fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw=int_gammafracf(w)(w - z_0)^2 : dw$, as desired.



        All that remains therefore is to justify the limit/integral switch: a fancy way would be to use the dominated convergence theorem, which applies since $f$ is bounded on $gamma$ and there is a number $delta$ such that $d(z_0,gamma)=delta>0$ and we may also assume that $d(z,gamma)>delta$ for all $z$ close enough to $z_0.$



        But you can also argue directly: Let $Mmax_win gamma |, delta$ as in the above remark and $ell(gamma)$ the length of $gamma.$ Then,



        $beginalignleft |int_gamma fracf(w)(w - z)(w - z_0) : dw-int_gammafracf(w)(w - z_0)^2 : dwright |le fracMdeltacdot left |int_gamma frac1(w - z) : dw-int_gammafrac1(w - z_0) : dwright |le fracMdeltacdot int_gammaleft|fracz-z_0(w-z)(w-z_0)right|dwle fracMdelta^3int_gamma|z-z_0|dwle fracMcdot ell((gamma)delta^3|z-z_0|endalign$



        To finish, let $zto z_0.$



        For the $kth$ derivative, this calculation goes through virtually unchanged.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 22 at 3:51

























        answered Mar 21 at 15:56









        MatematletaMatematleta

        12k21020




        12k21020





















            0












            $begingroup$

            To prove the general case you can take limits of difference quotients and use induction (or expand the Cauchy integral in a power series as I do below). In this case, since you only want the formula for the first derivative, you can simply pass the derivative through the integral; namely,
            $$f^prime(z) = fracddzleft(frac12pi iint_C fracf(zeta)zeta - z dzeta right) = frac12pi iint_C fracddzleft(fracf(zeta)zeta - zright) dzeta.$$



            Edit: The final step is to compute
            $$fracddzleft(fracf(zeta)zeta-zright) = f(zeta)fracddzleft(frac1zeta-zright) = fracf(zeta)(zeta-z)^2.$$



            Edit 2: I will actually not do the inductive proof, but rather a proof based on expanding a Cauchy integral as a power series. If you want to see the inductive proof, there are plenty of websites with said proof.



            First, note that we can write
            $$f(z) = frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)zeta - z dzeta,$$



            Fix a point $z_0$ off $gamma$, set $R = mathrmdist(z_0,gamma)$ and let $z$ be a point satisfying $lvert z - z_0 rvert < R$. Notice that
            $$frac1zeta-z = frac1(zeta - z_0) - (z - z_0) = frac1zeta - z_0left(frac11-fracz-z_0zeta-z_0right) = sum_n=0^infty frac(z-z_0)^n(zeta-z_0)^n+1,$$
            where the power series converges locally uniformly wrt $zeta$ in $bigglvertfracz-z_0zeta-z_0biggrvert<1$ and so converges uniformly on $gamma$. Since $f$ is bounded on $gamma$, the series
            $$frac12pi isum_n=0^infty fracf(zeta)(z-z_0)^n(zeta-z_0)^n+1$$
            converges uniformly on $gamma$ to $fracf(zeta)zeta - z$. Therefore, we can integrate the power series term-by-term over $gamma$:
            $$f(z) = sum_n=0^infty left(frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzetaright) (z-z_0)^n.$$
            Therefore, the terms $frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzeta$ are the coefficients in the power series for $f$ centered about $z=z_0$ and therefore
            $$frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzeta = fracf^(n)(z_0)n!.$$



            Edit 3: This is a bit of a tangent, so feel free to skip it if you aren't in the mood to indulge me. One reason why I like (and chose to present) this proof is that, in addition to proving the Cauchy integral formula (for derivatives), it actually can (very clearly) tell us something about Cauchy integrals in general. Let $gamma:[a,b] to mathbbC$ be a piecewise-$C^1$ closed curve and let $phi: G supset gamma to mathbbC$ (slightly abusing notation) be continuous on $gamma$. Define
            $$F(z) = int_gamma fracphi(zeta)zeta - z dzeta.$$
            Then, the (essentially) same proof as above shows that $F$ is analytic on $mathbbCsetminusgamma$. So, we can start with a function which is merely continuous, define its Cauchy integral and get back an analytic function. It also, of course, tells us that all holomorphic functions are analytic.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              How would I go about doing this?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:30










            • $begingroup$
              @user55552 I assume you were asking about how to compute the derivative as that is the only step left. I edited my answer to address this. Does that make sense now?
              $endgroup$
              – Gary Moon
              Mar 21 at 14:41










            • $begingroup$
              Thank you for this! How would you do this by proof by induction as this is what was stated in your answer?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:47










            • $begingroup$
              You would only need to utilize induction if you wanted to prove the general case; namely that $forall n in mathbbZ_geq 0$, we have $f^(n)(z) = fracn!2pi iint_C f(zeta) (zeta - z)^-n-1 dzeta$.
              $endgroup$
              – Gary Moon
              Mar 21 at 14:50










            • $begingroup$
              Could you please outline the steps that are needed to prove this statement?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:54















            0












            $begingroup$

            To prove the general case you can take limits of difference quotients and use induction (or expand the Cauchy integral in a power series as I do below). In this case, since you only want the formula for the first derivative, you can simply pass the derivative through the integral; namely,
            $$f^prime(z) = fracddzleft(frac12pi iint_C fracf(zeta)zeta - z dzeta right) = frac12pi iint_C fracddzleft(fracf(zeta)zeta - zright) dzeta.$$



            Edit: The final step is to compute
            $$fracddzleft(fracf(zeta)zeta-zright) = f(zeta)fracddzleft(frac1zeta-zright) = fracf(zeta)(zeta-z)^2.$$



            Edit 2: I will actually not do the inductive proof, but rather a proof based on expanding a Cauchy integral as a power series. If you want to see the inductive proof, there are plenty of websites with said proof.



            First, note that we can write
            $$f(z) = frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)zeta - z dzeta,$$



            Fix a point $z_0$ off $gamma$, set $R = mathrmdist(z_0,gamma)$ and let $z$ be a point satisfying $lvert z - z_0 rvert < R$. Notice that
            $$frac1zeta-z = frac1(zeta - z_0) - (z - z_0) = frac1zeta - z_0left(frac11-fracz-z_0zeta-z_0right) = sum_n=0^infty frac(z-z_0)^n(zeta-z_0)^n+1,$$
            where the power series converges locally uniformly wrt $zeta$ in $bigglvertfracz-z_0zeta-z_0biggrvert<1$ and so converges uniformly on $gamma$. Since $f$ is bounded on $gamma$, the series
            $$frac12pi isum_n=0^infty fracf(zeta)(z-z_0)^n(zeta-z_0)^n+1$$
            converges uniformly on $gamma$ to $fracf(zeta)zeta - z$. Therefore, we can integrate the power series term-by-term over $gamma$:
            $$f(z) = sum_n=0^infty left(frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzetaright) (z-z_0)^n.$$
            Therefore, the terms $frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzeta$ are the coefficients in the power series for $f$ centered about $z=z_0$ and therefore
            $$frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzeta = fracf^(n)(z_0)n!.$$



            Edit 3: This is a bit of a tangent, so feel free to skip it if you aren't in the mood to indulge me. One reason why I like (and chose to present) this proof is that, in addition to proving the Cauchy integral formula (for derivatives), it actually can (very clearly) tell us something about Cauchy integrals in general. Let $gamma:[a,b] to mathbbC$ be a piecewise-$C^1$ closed curve and let $phi: G supset gamma to mathbbC$ (slightly abusing notation) be continuous on $gamma$. Define
            $$F(z) = int_gamma fracphi(zeta)zeta - z dzeta.$$
            Then, the (essentially) same proof as above shows that $F$ is analytic on $mathbbCsetminusgamma$. So, we can start with a function which is merely continuous, define its Cauchy integral and get back an analytic function. It also, of course, tells us that all holomorphic functions are analytic.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              How would I go about doing this?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:30










            • $begingroup$
              @user55552 I assume you were asking about how to compute the derivative as that is the only step left. I edited my answer to address this. Does that make sense now?
              $endgroup$
              – Gary Moon
              Mar 21 at 14:41










            • $begingroup$
              Thank you for this! How would you do this by proof by induction as this is what was stated in your answer?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:47










            • $begingroup$
              You would only need to utilize induction if you wanted to prove the general case; namely that $forall n in mathbbZ_geq 0$, we have $f^(n)(z) = fracn!2pi iint_C f(zeta) (zeta - z)^-n-1 dzeta$.
              $endgroup$
              – Gary Moon
              Mar 21 at 14:50










            • $begingroup$
              Could you please outline the steps that are needed to prove this statement?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:54













            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            To prove the general case you can take limits of difference quotients and use induction (or expand the Cauchy integral in a power series as I do below). In this case, since you only want the formula for the first derivative, you can simply pass the derivative through the integral; namely,
            $$f^prime(z) = fracddzleft(frac12pi iint_C fracf(zeta)zeta - z dzeta right) = frac12pi iint_C fracddzleft(fracf(zeta)zeta - zright) dzeta.$$



            Edit: The final step is to compute
            $$fracddzleft(fracf(zeta)zeta-zright) = f(zeta)fracddzleft(frac1zeta-zright) = fracf(zeta)(zeta-z)^2.$$



            Edit 2: I will actually not do the inductive proof, but rather a proof based on expanding a Cauchy integral as a power series. If you want to see the inductive proof, there are plenty of websites with said proof.



            First, note that we can write
            $$f(z) = frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)zeta - z dzeta,$$



            Fix a point $z_0$ off $gamma$, set $R = mathrmdist(z_0,gamma)$ and let $z$ be a point satisfying $lvert z - z_0 rvert < R$. Notice that
            $$frac1zeta-z = frac1(zeta - z_0) - (z - z_0) = frac1zeta - z_0left(frac11-fracz-z_0zeta-z_0right) = sum_n=0^infty frac(z-z_0)^n(zeta-z_0)^n+1,$$
            where the power series converges locally uniformly wrt $zeta$ in $bigglvertfracz-z_0zeta-z_0biggrvert<1$ and so converges uniformly on $gamma$. Since $f$ is bounded on $gamma$, the series
            $$frac12pi isum_n=0^infty fracf(zeta)(z-z_0)^n(zeta-z_0)^n+1$$
            converges uniformly on $gamma$ to $fracf(zeta)zeta - z$. Therefore, we can integrate the power series term-by-term over $gamma$:
            $$f(z) = sum_n=0^infty left(frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzetaright) (z-z_0)^n.$$
            Therefore, the terms $frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzeta$ are the coefficients in the power series for $f$ centered about $z=z_0$ and therefore
            $$frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzeta = fracf^(n)(z_0)n!.$$



            Edit 3: This is a bit of a tangent, so feel free to skip it if you aren't in the mood to indulge me. One reason why I like (and chose to present) this proof is that, in addition to proving the Cauchy integral formula (for derivatives), it actually can (very clearly) tell us something about Cauchy integrals in general. Let $gamma:[a,b] to mathbbC$ be a piecewise-$C^1$ closed curve and let $phi: G supset gamma to mathbbC$ (slightly abusing notation) be continuous on $gamma$. Define
            $$F(z) = int_gamma fracphi(zeta)zeta - z dzeta.$$
            Then, the (essentially) same proof as above shows that $F$ is analytic on $mathbbCsetminusgamma$. So, we can start with a function which is merely continuous, define its Cauchy integral and get back an analytic function. It also, of course, tells us that all holomorphic functions are analytic.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            To prove the general case you can take limits of difference quotients and use induction (or expand the Cauchy integral in a power series as I do below). In this case, since you only want the formula for the first derivative, you can simply pass the derivative through the integral; namely,
            $$f^prime(z) = fracddzleft(frac12pi iint_C fracf(zeta)zeta - z dzeta right) = frac12pi iint_C fracddzleft(fracf(zeta)zeta - zright) dzeta.$$



            Edit: The final step is to compute
            $$fracddzleft(fracf(zeta)zeta-zright) = f(zeta)fracddzleft(frac1zeta-zright) = fracf(zeta)(zeta-z)^2.$$



            Edit 2: I will actually not do the inductive proof, but rather a proof based on expanding a Cauchy integral as a power series. If you want to see the inductive proof, there are plenty of websites with said proof.



            First, note that we can write
            $$f(z) = frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)zeta - z dzeta,$$



            Fix a point $z_0$ off $gamma$, set $R = mathrmdist(z_0,gamma)$ and let $z$ be a point satisfying $lvert z - z_0 rvert < R$. Notice that
            $$frac1zeta-z = frac1(zeta - z_0) - (z - z_0) = frac1zeta - z_0left(frac11-fracz-z_0zeta-z_0right) = sum_n=0^infty frac(z-z_0)^n(zeta-z_0)^n+1,$$
            where the power series converges locally uniformly wrt $zeta$ in $bigglvertfracz-z_0zeta-z_0biggrvert<1$ and so converges uniformly on $gamma$. Since $f$ is bounded on $gamma$, the series
            $$frac12pi isum_n=0^infty fracf(zeta)(z-z_0)^n(zeta-z_0)^n+1$$
            converges uniformly on $gamma$ to $fracf(zeta)zeta - z$. Therefore, we can integrate the power series term-by-term over $gamma$:
            $$f(z) = sum_n=0^infty left(frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzetaright) (z-z_0)^n.$$
            Therefore, the terms $frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzeta$ are the coefficients in the power series for $f$ centered about $z=z_0$ and therefore
            $$frac12pi iint_gamma fracf(zeta)(zeta-z_0)^n+1 dzeta = fracf^(n)(z_0)n!.$$



            Edit 3: This is a bit of a tangent, so feel free to skip it if you aren't in the mood to indulge me. One reason why I like (and chose to present) this proof is that, in addition to proving the Cauchy integral formula (for derivatives), it actually can (very clearly) tell us something about Cauchy integrals in general. Let $gamma:[a,b] to mathbbC$ be a piecewise-$C^1$ closed curve and let $phi: G supset gamma to mathbbC$ (slightly abusing notation) be continuous on $gamma$. Define
            $$F(z) = int_gamma fracphi(zeta)zeta - z dzeta.$$
            Then, the (essentially) same proof as above shows that $F$ is analytic on $mathbbCsetminusgamma$. So, we can start with a function which is merely continuous, define its Cauchy integral and get back an analytic function. It also, of course, tells us that all holomorphic functions are analytic.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Mar 21 at 17:10

























            answered Mar 21 at 13:25









            Gary MoonGary Moon

            92127




            92127











            • $begingroup$
              How would I go about doing this?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:30










            • $begingroup$
              @user55552 I assume you were asking about how to compute the derivative as that is the only step left. I edited my answer to address this. Does that make sense now?
              $endgroup$
              – Gary Moon
              Mar 21 at 14:41










            • $begingroup$
              Thank you for this! How would you do this by proof by induction as this is what was stated in your answer?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:47










            • $begingroup$
              You would only need to utilize induction if you wanted to prove the general case; namely that $forall n in mathbbZ_geq 0$, we have $f^(n)(z) = fracn!2pi iint_C f(zeta) (zeta - z)^-n-1 dzeta$.
              $endgroup$
              – Gary Moon
              Mar 21 at 14:50










            • $begingroup$
              Could you please outline the steps that are needed to prove this statement?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:54
















            • $begingroup$
              How would I go about doing this?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:30










            • $begingroup$
              @user55552 I assume you were asking about how to compute the derivative as that is the only step left. I edited my answer to address this. Does that make sense now?
              $endgroup$
              – Gary Moon
              Mar 21 at 14:41










            • $begingroup$
              Thank you for this! How would you do this by proof by induction as this is what was stated in your answer?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:47










            • $begingroup$
              You would only need to utilize induction if you wanted to prove the general case; namely that $forall n in mathbbZ_geq 0$, we have $f^(n)(z) = fracn!2pi iint_C f(zeta) (zeta - z)^-n-1 dzeta$.
              $endgroup$
              – Gary Moon
              Mar 21 at 14:50










            • $begingroup$
              Could you please outline the steps that are needed to prove this statement?
              $endgroup$
              – user504484
              Mar 21 at 14:54















            $begingroup$
            How would I go about doing this?
            $endgroup$
            – user504484
            Mar 21 at 14:30




            $begingroup$
            How would I go about doing this?
            $endgroup$
            – user504484
            Mar 21 at 14:30












            $begingroup$
            @user55552 I assume you were asking about how to compute the derivative as that is the only step left. I edited my answer to address this. Does that make sense now?
            $endgroup$
            – Gary Moon
            Mar 21 at 14:41




            $begingroup$
            @user55552 I assume you were asking about how to compute the derivative as that is the only step left. I edited my answer to address this. Does that make sense now?
            $endgroup$
            – Gary Moon
            Mar 21 at 14:41












            $begingroup$
            Thank you for this! How would you do this by proof by induction as this is what was stated in your answer?
            $endgroup$
            – user504484
            Mar 21 at 14:47




            $begingroup$
            Thank you for this! How would you do this by proof by induction as this is what was stated in your answer?
            $endgroup$
            – user504484
            Mar 21 at 14:47












            $begingroup$
            You would only need to utilize induction if you wanted to prove the general case; namely that $forall n in mathbbZ_geq 0$, we have $f^(n)(z) = fracn!2pi iint_C f(zeta) (zeta - z)^-n-1 dzeta$.
            $endgroup$
            – Gary Moon
            Mar 21 at 14:50




            $begingroup$
            You would only need to utilize induction if you wanted to prove the general case; namely that $forall n in mathbbZ_geq 0$, we have $f^(n)(z) = fracn!2pi iint_C f(zeta) (zeta - z)^-n-1 dzeta$.
            $endgroup$
            – Gary Moon
            Mar 21 at 14:50












            $begingroup$
            Could you please outline the steps that are needed to prove this statement?
            $endgroup$
            – user504484
            Mar 21 at 14:54




            $begingroup$
            Could you please outline the steps that are needed to prove this statement?
            $endgroup$
            – user504484
            Mar 21 at 14:54

















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