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Discussing the convergence of $int_-1^1 dx/x^4$



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InImproper integral $int^pi/2_0 (operatornamecsc x - frac1x),mathrm dx$Improper integral:$ int_-1^2 frac1xdx$ diverges$int_-infty^infty x^2 cdot frac12Ce^,dx$ where C is a constantConvergence of $int_-1^1fracx-1x^5/3dx$Convergence of $int_0^1 fracsqrt e^2+x^2 - e^cos xtan^axdx$Differing (divergent) limits in the improper integral $int_-1^3x^-3dx$Calculate $int_-infty^+inftyfracx1+x^2dx$, what is wrong with this?$int_-1^0 frac(e^1/x)x^2 dx$ Improper integralsEvaluating $int_-infty^infty 1-e^-frac1x^2rm dx$The convergence of a strange integral: $int_0^1fracx-1ln xmathbb dx$










-1












$begingroup$


I broke the improper integral into:
$$lim_ato0 int_-1^a-0 fracdxx^4 +lim_ato0 int_0+a^1 fracdxx^4,$$



as $0$ is the point of discontinuity. Now, while plugging the limits of the first integral, I am facing problem as it is getting complex. Is my approach correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Complex? How so? The integration should be pretty straight forward. Applying the limits it should be clear that things are going off to infinity, and the integral does not converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Mar 24 at 6:00











  • $begingroup$
    Why you need all this - the integral is well defined. Why you call it improper?
    $endgroup$
    – Moti
    Mar 24 at 6:29










  • $begingroup$
    @Moti - This is improper because of the pole at $x = 0$. This is not allowed in the definition of the Riemann integral.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Sinclair
    Mar 24 at 15:55










  • $begingroup$
    I have solved it. Sometimes easy thing becomes difficult if we see it in a hard way.
    $endgroup$
    – Aditya Saha
    Mar 25 at 13:55















-1












$begingroup$


I broke the improper integral into:
$$lim_ato0 int_-1^a-0 fracdxx^4 +lim_ato0 int_0+a^1 fracdxx^4,$$



as $0$ is the point of discontinuity. Now, while plugging the limits of the first integral, I am facing problem as it is getting complex. Is my approach correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Complex? How so? The integration should be pretty straight forward. Applying the limits it should be clear that things are going off to infinity, and the integral does not converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Mar 24 at 6:00











  • $begingroup$
    Why you need all this - the integral is well defined. Why you call it improper?
    $endgroup$
    – Moti
    Mar 24 at 6:29










  • $begingroup$
    @Moti - This is improper because of the pole at $x = 0$. This is not allowed in the definition of the Riemann integral.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Sinclair
    Mar 24 at 15:55










  • $begingroup$
    I have solved it. Sometimes easy thing becomes difficult if we see it in a hard way.
    $endgroup$
    – Aditya Saha
    Mar 25 at 13:55













-1












-1








-1





$begingroup$


I broke the improper integral into:
$$lim_ato0 int_-1^a-0 fracdxx^4 +lim_ato0 int_0+a^1 fracdxx^4,$$



as $0$ is the point of discontinuity. Now, while plugging the limits of the first integral, I am facing problem as it is getting complex. Is my approach correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I broke the improper integral into:
$$lim_ato0 int_-1^a-0 fracdxx^4 +lim_ato0 int_0+a^1 fracdxx^4,$$



as $0$ is the point of discontinuity. Now, while plugging the limits of the first integral, I am facing problem as it is getting complex. Is my approach correct?







calculus functions maxima-minima






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 24 at 5:54









Rócherz

3,0263823




3,0263823










asked Mar 24 at 5:16









Aditya SahaAditya Saha

42




42











  • $begingroup$
    Complex? How so? The integration should be pretty straight forward. Applying the limits it should be clear that things are going off to infinity, and the integral does not converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Mar 24 at 6:00











  • $begingroup$
    Why you need all this - the integral is well defined. Why you call it improper?
    $endgroup$
    – Moti
    Mar 24 at 6:29










  • $begingroup$
    @Moti - This is improper because of the pole at $x = 0$. This is not allowed in the definition of the Riemann integral.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Sinclair
    Mar 24 at 15:55










  • $begingroup$
    I have solved it. Sometimes easy thing becomes difficult if we see it in a hard way.
    $endgroup$
    – Aditya Saha
    Mar 25 at 13:55
















  • $begingroup$
    Complex? How so? The integration should be pretty straight forward. Applying the limits it should be clear that things are going off to infinity, and the integral does not converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Doug M
    Mar 24 at 6:00











  • $begingroup$
    Why you need all this - the integral is well defined. Why you call it improper?
    $endgroup$
    – Moti
    Mar 24 at 6:29










  • $begingroup$
    @Moti - This is improper because of the pole at $x = 0$. This is not allowed in the definition of the Riemann integral.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Sinclair
    Mar 24 at 15:55










  • $begingroup$
    I have solved it. Sometimes easy thing becomes difficult if we see it in a hard way.
    $endgroup$
    – Aditya Saha
    Mar 25 at 13:55















$begingroup$
Complex? How so? The integration should be pretty straight forward. Applying the limits it should be clear that things are going off to infinity, and the integral does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Mar 24 at 6:00





$begingroup$
Complex? How so? The integration should be pretty straight forward. Applying the limits it should be clear that things are going off to infinity, and the integral does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Mar 24 at 6:00













$begingroup$
Why you need all this - the integral is well defined. Why you call it improper?
$endgroup$
– Moti
Mar 24 at 6:29




$begingroup$
Why you need all this - the integral is well defined. Why you call it improper?
$endgroup$
– Moti
Mar 24 at 6:29












$begingroup$
@Moti - This is improper because of the pole at $x = 0$. This is not allowed in the definition of the Riemann integral.
$endgroup$
– Paul Sinclair
Mar 24 at 15:55




$begingroup$
@Moti - This is improper because of the pole at $x = 0$. This is not allowed in the definition of the Riemann integral.
$endgroup$
– Paul Sinclair
Mar 24 at 15:55












$begingroup$
I have solved it. Sometimes easy thing becomes difficult if we see it in a hard way.
$endgroup$
– Aditya Saha
Mar 25 at 13:55




$begingroup$
I have solved it. Sometimes easy thing becomes difficult if we see it in a hard way.
$endgroup$
– Aditya Saha
Mar 25 at 13:55










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