$sigma(mathcalA) = $ the set of countable unions of countable intersections of elements or complements of elements of $mathcalA$$inf_kgeq n f_k$ is measurable.Identify the smallest sigma-algebra of subsets of $mathbbR$ that contains the set [0, 1]Show that the class of countable unions and intersections of the elements of an algebra is an algebra.(Countable) partition generated $sigma$-algebraShow that $mathcalO$ forms a $sigma$-algebraproduct $sigma$-algebra equals the set of all countable unions of disjoint measurable rectangles?If $Omega = [0,1]$ and $mathcalF$ is the set of subsets $A$ such that either $A$ or $A^c$ are countable, is $mathcalF$ an ($sigma$) algebra?Proof of all finite subsets on $mathbbR$ together with complements is not a $sigma$ algebraWhy isn't minimal sigma-algebra simply the set containing all countable unions and complementsIs a monotone class which is closed under complements and finite disjoint unions a sigma-algebra?

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$sigma(mathcalA) = $ the set of countable unions of countable intersections of elements or complements of elements of $mathcalA$


$inf_kgeq n f_k$ is measurable.Identify the smallest sigma-algebra of subsets of $mathbbR$ that contains the set [0, 1]Show that the class of countable unions and intersections of the elements of an algebra is an algebra.(Countable) partition generated $sigma$-algebraShow that $mathcalO$ forms a $sigma$-algebraproduct $sigma$-algebra equals the set of all countable unions of disjoint measurable rectangles?If $Omega = [0,1]$ and $mathcalF$ is the set of subsets $A$ such that either $A$ or $A^c$ are countable, is $mathcalF$ an ($sigma$) algebra?Proof of all finite subsets on $mathbbR$ together with complements is not a $sigma$ algebraWhy isn't minimal sigma-algebra simply the set containing all countable unions and complementsIs a monotone class which is closed under complements and finite disjoint unions a sigma-algebra?













2












$begingroup$


Let $mathcalA subseteq mathcalP(Omega)$, $Omega$ a set. Then isn't the set of call countable unions of countable intersections of elements or complements of elements of $mathcalA$ equal to $sigma(mathcalA)$? More precisely, $sigma(mathcalA) = cup_i=1^infty cap_j=1^infty A_j^i : A = A_j^i$ or $A = A_j^i$ for some $A in mathcalA$, for all $i,j$. If that's not true, then I'm pretty sure that if you also contain the countable $cap$ of countable $cup$ 's, then it is true.



I found it difficult trying to prove that $cap_i=1^infty cup_j=1^infty A_j^i = cap_j=1^infty cup_i=1^infty A_j^k(i,j)$, where $k :mathbbNtimesmathbbNrightarrowmathbbN$ is some onto function. So that's why I've also said it might have to include the $capcup$'s.



What do you think, is it true?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Not in general.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Jul 19 '13 at 2:49















2












$begingroup$


Let $mathcalA subseteq mathcalP(Omega)$, $Omega$ a set. Then isn't the set of call countable unions of countable intersections of elements or complements of elements of $mathcalA$ equal to $sigma(mathcalA)$? More precisely, $sigma(mathcalA) = cup_i=1^infty cap_j=1^infty A_j^i : A = A_j^i$ or $A = A_j^i$ for some $A in mathcalA$, for all $i,j$. If that's not true, then I'm pretty sure that if you also contain the countable $cap$ of countable $cup$ 's, then it is true.



I found it difficult trying to prove that $cap_i=1^infty cup_j=1^infty A_j^i = cap_j=1^infty cup_i=1^infty A_j^k(i,j)$, where $k :mathbbNtimesmathbbNrightarrowmathbbN$ is some onto function. So that's why I've also said it might have to include the $capcup$'s.



What do you think, is it true?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Not in general.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Jul 19 '13 at 2:49













2












2








2





$begingroup$


Let $mathcalA subseteq mathcalP(Omega)$, $Omega$ a set. Then isn't the set of call countable unions of countable intersections of elements or complements of elements of $mathcalA$ equal to $sigma(mathcalA)$? More precisely, $sigma(mathcalA) = cup_i=1^infty cap_j=1^infty A_j^i : A = A_j^i$ or $A = A_j^i$ for some $A in mathcalA$, for all $i,j$. If that's not true, then I'm pretty sure that if you also contain the countable $cap$ of countable $cup$ 's, then it is true.



I found it difficult trying to prove that $cap_i=1^infty cup_j=1^infty A_j^i = cap_j=1^infty cup_i=1^infty A_j^k(i,j)$, where $k :mathbbNtimesmathbbNrightarrowmathbbN$ is some onto function. So that's why I've also said it might have to include the $capcup$'s.



What do you think, is it true?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $mathcalA subseteq mathcalP(Omega)$, $Omega$ a set. Then isn't the set of call countable unions of countable intersections of elements or complements of elements of $mathcalA$ equal to $sigma(mathcalA)$? More precisely, $sigma(mathcalA) = cup_i=1^infty cap_j=1^infty A_j^i : A = A_j^i$ or $A = A_j^i$ for some $A in mathcalA$, for all $i,j$. If that's not true, then I'm pretty sure that if you also contain the countable $cap$ of countable $cup$ 's, then it is true.



I found it difficult trying to prove that $cap_i=1^infty cup_j=1^infty A_j^i = cap_j=1^infty cup_i=1^infty A_j^k(i,j)$, where $k :mathbbNtimesmathbbNrightarrowmathbbN$ is some onto function. So that's why I've also said it might have to include the $capcup$'s.



What do you think, is it true?







measure-theory elementary-set-theory






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jul 19 '13 at 2:45









BananaCatsBananaCats

9,35052659




9,35052659







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Not in general.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Jul 19 '13 at 2:49












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Not in general.
    $endgroup$
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Jul 19 '13 at 2:49







2




2




$begingroup$
Not in general.
$endgroup$
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Jul 19 '13 at 2:49




$begingroup$
Not in general.
$endgroup$
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Jul 19 '13 at 2:49










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Let $Sigma$ be the described set. $Omega$ is in $Sigma$ since you can construct a trivial $cupcap$ consisting of any $AinmathcalA$ and its complement. If $AinSigma$, then $A = cupcap A_j^i$, then Demorgan's law gives $A = capcup (A_j^i)^c$, which equals a $cupcap$ possibly, or if it doesn't then say we're working with the second described set. Let $(A_n)_ngeq 1$ be a sequence in $Sigma$. Then each $A_n = cupcap A_n,j^i$. A countable union of a countable union is a countable union, so $cup_n=1^inftyA_n = $ Oops!



I see now where my mistake is, we can't let the $capcup$'s in or my last statement gets ruined. But I think $cupcap =$ some $capcup$. If that's true, then this proof will work.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













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    0












    $begingroup$

    Let $Sigma$ be the described set. $Omega$ is in $Sigma$ since you can construct a trivial $cupcap$ consisting of any $AinmathcalA$ and its complement. If $AinSigma$, then $A = cupcap A_j^i$, then Demorgan's law gives $A = capcup (A_j^i)^c$, which equals a $cupcap$ possibly, or if it doesn't then say we're working with the second described set. Let $(A_n)_ngeq 1$ be a sequence in $Sigma$. Then each $A_n = cupcap A_n,j^i$. A countable union of a countable union is a countable union, so $cup_n=1^inftyA_n = $ Oops!



    I see now where my mistake is, we can't let the $capcup$'s in or my last statement gets ruined. But I think $cupcap =$ some $capcup$. If that's true, then this proof will work.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      0












      $begingroup$

      Let $Sigma$ be the described set. $Omega$ is in $Sigma$ since you can construct a trivial $cupcap$ consisting of any $AinmathcalA$ and its complement. If $AinSigma$, then $A = cupcap A_j^i$, then Demorgan's law gives $A = capcup (A_j^i)^c$, which equals a $cupcap$ possibly, or if it doesn't then say we're working with the second described set. Let $(A_n)_ngeq 1$ be a sequence in $Sigma$. Then each $A_n = cupcap A_n,j^i$. A countable union of a countable union is a countable union, so $cup_n=1^inftyA_n = $ Oops!



      I see now where my mistake is, we can't let the $capcup$'s in or my last statement gets ruined. But I think $cupcap =$ some $capcup$. If that's true, then this proof will work.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Let $Sigma$ be the described set. $Omega$ is in $Sigma$ since you can construct a trivial $cupcap$ consisting of any $AinmathcalA$ and its complement. If $AinSigma$, then $A = cupcap A_j^i$, then Demorgan's law gives $A = capcup (A_j^i)^c$, which equals a $cupcap$ possibly, or if it doesn't then say we're working with the second described set. Let $(A_n)_ngeq 1$ be a sequence in $Sigma$. Then each $A_n = cupcap A_n,j^i$. A countable union of a countable union is a countable union, so $cup_n=1^inftyA_n = $ Oops!



        I see now where my mistake is, we can't let the $capcup$'s in or my last statement gets ruined. But I think $cupcap =$ some $capcup$. If that's true, then this proof will work.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Let $Sigma$ be the described set. $Omega$ is in $Sigma$ since you can construct a trivial $cupcap$ consisting of any $AinmathcalA$ and its complement. If $AinSigma$, then $A = cupcap A_j^i$, then Demorgan's law gives $A = capcup (A_j^i)^c$, which equals a $cupcap$ possibly, or if it doesn't then say we're working with the second described set. Let $(A_n)_ngeq 1$ be a sequence in $Sigma$. Then each $A_n = cupcap A_n,j^i$. A countable union of a countable union is a countable union, so $cup_n=1^inftyA_n = $ Oops!



        I see now where my mistake is, we can't let the $capcup$'s in or my last statement gets ruined. But I think $cupcap =$ some $capcup$. If that's true, then this proof will work.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jul 19 '13 at 3:02









        BananaCatsBananaCats

        9,35052659




        9,35052659



























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