Integral of an indicator functionWhen is it valid to convert a function inside a probability integral to the indicator function?Incomplete Gamma Function IntegralRiemann Integral of Unit Fraction Indicator FunctionDouble integration proof for expectation of a random variable.Integrating Indicator FunctionIntegrating a function containing multiple Indicator Fuctionstwo inequalities involving integralindicator function with integralsSolving integral (expectation) with indicator functionIntegration with the gradient of an indicator function
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Integral of an indicator function
When is it valid to convert a function inside a probability integral to the indicator function?Incomplete Gamma Function IntegralRiemann Integral of Unit Fraction Indicator FunctionDouble integration proof for expectation of a random variable.Integrating Indicator FunctionIntegrating a function containing multiple Indicator Fuctionstwo inequalities involving integralindicator function with integralsSolving integral (expectation) with indicator functionIntegration with the gradient of an indicator function
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Just wanted to ask for a quick verification of the following:
Let $mathbf1_(0,x]$ be an indicator function. Then
$int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x]^2(t)dt=int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x](t)dt=int_0^xdt=x$.
Is that correct?
integration
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Just wanted to ask for a quick verification of the following:
Let $mathbf1_(0,x]$ be an indicator function. Then
$int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x]^2(t)dt=int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x](t)dt=int_0^xdt=x$.
Is that correct?
integration
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2
$begingroup$
Yes, it is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 22 at 10:31
$begingroup$
Great,thank you.
$endgroup$
– amator2357
Mar 22 at 10:34
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Just wanted to ask for a quick verification of the following:
Let $mathbf1_(0,x]$ be an indicator function. Then
$int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x]^2(t)dt=int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x](t)dt=int_0^xdt=x$.
Is that correct?
integration
$endgroup$
Just wanted to ask for a quick verification of the following:
Let $mathbf1_(0,x]$ be an indicator function. Then
$int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x]^2(t)dt=int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x](t)dt=int_0^xdt=x$.
Is that correct?
integration
integration
asked Mar 22 at 10:28
amator2357amator2357
939
939
2
$begingroup$
Yes, it is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 22 at 10:31
$begingroup$
Great,thank you.
$endgroup$
– amator2357
Mar 22 at 10:34
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Yes, it is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 22 at 10:31
$begingroup$
Great,thank you.
$endgroup$
– amator2357
Mar 22 at 10:34
2
2
$begingroup$
Yes, it is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 22 at 10:31
$begingroup$
Yes, it is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 22 at 10:31
$begingroup$
Great,thank you.
$endgroup$
– amator2357
Mar 22 at 10:34
$begingroup$
Great,thank you.
$endgroup$
– amator2357
Mar 22 at 10:34
add a comment |
0
active
oldest
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$begingroup$
Yes, it is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 22 at 10:31
$begingroup$
Great,thank you.
$endgroup$
– amator2357
Mar 22 at 10:34