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Integral of an indicator function


When is it valid to convert a function inside a probability integral to the indicator function?Incomplete Gamma Function IntegralRiemann Integral of Unit Fraction Indicator FunctionDouble integration proof for expectation of a random variable.Integrating Indicator FunctionIntegrating a function containing multiple Indicator Fuctionstwo inequalities involving integralindicator function with integralsSolving integral (expectation) with indicator functionIntegration with the gradient of an indicator function













0












$begingroup$


Just wanted to ask for a quick verification of the following:



Let $mathbf1_(0,x]$ be an indicator function. Then



$int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x]^2(t)dt=int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x](t)dt=int_0^xdt=x$.



Is that correct?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 22 at 10:31










  • $begingroup$
    Great,thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – amator2357
    Mar 22 at 10:34















0












$begingroup$


Just wanted to ask for a quick verification of the following:



Let $mathbf1_(0,x]$ be an indicator function. Then



$int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x]^2(t)dt=int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x](t)dt=int_0^xdt=x$.



Is that correct?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 22 at 10:31










  • $begingroup$
    Great,thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – amator2357
    Mar 22 at 10:34













0












0








0





$begingroup$


Just wanted to ask for a quick verification of the following:



Let $mathbf1_(0,x]$ be an indicator function. Then



$int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x]^2(t)dt=int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x](t)dt=int_0^xdt=x$.



Is that correct?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Just wanted to ask for a quick verification of the following:



Let $mathbf1_(0,x]$ be an indicator function. Then



$int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x]^2(t)dt=int_0^inftymathbf1_(0,x](t)dt=int_0^xdt=x$.



Is that correct?







integration






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 22 at 10:28









amator2357amator2357

939




939







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 22 at 10:31










  • $begingroup$
    Great,thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – amator2357
    Mar 22 at 10:34












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 22 at 10:31










  • $begingroup$
    Great,thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – amator2357
    Mar 22 at 10:34







2




2




$begingroup$
Yes, it is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 22 at 10:31




$begingroup$
Yes, it is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 22 at 10:31












$begingroup$
Great,thank you.
$endgroup$
– amator2357
Mar 22 at 10:34




$begingroup$
Great,thank you.
$endgroup$
– amator2357
Mar 22 at 10:34










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