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Approximation $ln frac(h+f)!(h-g)!$ using Stirling’s when $f+g=o(h)$


How best to explain the $sqrt2pi n$ term in Stirling's?Approximation of integral using series expansion of the integrand.Approximating $sqrt101$ using Taylor series methodsUse stirlings approximation to prove inequality.best approximation of $sqrt2$Factorial of a large number and Stirling approximationMeaure-theoretic induction: Why dyadic approximation?Sum ApproximationUsing the normal approximation to a binomial distributionDeriving the fact that the approximation $log(n!) approx nlog(n) - n + frac12log(2pi n)$ is $O(1/n)$.













0












$begingroup$


Stirling’s approximation can be extended to a very well known inequality -



$$sqrt2pi nleft(fracneright)^n leq n! leq esqrtnleft(fracneright)^n$$



How can we use this to prove,



$$ln frac(h+f)!(h-g)! = (f+g)ln h pm Oleft(frac(f+g)^2hright) $$



when $f+g=o(h)$



My Attempt



$$
beginalign
ln frac(h+f)!(h-g)! &= ln fracleft(h+fright)^h+f+1/2left(h-gright)^h-g+1/2 + ln frace^h-ge^h+f\ &= (h+f+1/2)ln(h+f) - (h-g+1/2)ln(h-g) - (f+g)
endalign
$$



At this point I can use property of logarithms $ln(h+f)=ln h+ln(1+f/h)$ and $ln(h-g)=ln h+ln(1-g/h)$ to extract $ln h$ terms. But that would leave a lot of other terms with itself which I'm not able to collate.



How should I move ahead from hear? If this is not the right approach then I hope to be pointed towards right direction.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I never saw the very well known inequality :-)
    $endgroup$
    – Yves Daoust
    Mar 22 at 10:41










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry, I should not have presumed too much. But the inequality is there on wiki, and quite straight forward to prove as well.
    $endgroup$
    – Prateek
    Mar 22 at 11:05















0












$begingroup$


Stirling’s approximation can be extended to a very well known inequality -



$$sqrt2pi nleft(fracneright)^n leq n! leq esqrtnleft(fracneright)^n$$



How can we use this to prove,



$$ln frac(h+f)!(h-g)! = (f+g)ln h pm Oleft(frac(f+g)^2hright) $$



when $f+g=o(h)$



My Attempt



$$
beginalign
ln frac(h+f)!(h-g)! &= ln fracleft(h+fright)^h+f+1/2left(h-gright)^h-g+1/2 + ln frace^h-ge^h+f\ &= (h+f+1/2)ln(h+f) - (h-g+1/2)ln(h-g) - (f+g)
endalign
$$



At this point I can use property of logarithms $ln(h+f)=ln h+ln(1+f/h)$ and $ln(h-g)=ln h+ln(1-g/h)$ to extract $ln h$ terms. But that would leave a lot of other terms with itself which I'm not able to collate.



How should I move ahead from hear? If this is not the right approach then I hope to be pointed towards right direction.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I never saw the very well known inequality :-)
    $endgroup$
    – Yves Daoust
    Mar 22 at 10:41










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry, I should not have presumed too much. But the inequality is there on wiki, and quite straight forward to prove as well.
    $endgroup$
    – Prateek
    Mar 22 at 11:05













0












0








0





$begingroup$


Stirling’s approximation can be extended to a very well known inequality -



$$sqrt2pi nleft(fracneright)^n leq n! leq esqrtnleft(fracneright)^n$$



How can we use this to prove,



$$ln frac(h+f)!(h-g)! = (f+g)ln h pm Oleft(frac(f+g)^2hright) $$



when $f+g=o(h)$



My Attempt



$$
beginalign
ln frac(h+f)!(h-g)! &= ln fracleft(h+fright)^h+f+1/2left(h-gright)^h-g+1/2 + ln frace^h-ge^h+f\ &= (h+f+1/2)ln(h+f) - (h-g+1/2)ln(h-g) - (f+g)
endalign
$$



At this point I can use property of logarithms $ln(h+f)=ln h+ln(1+f/h)$ and $ln(h-g)=ln h+ln(1-g/h)$ to extract $ln h$ terms. But that would leave a lot of other terms with itself which I'm not able to collate.



How should I move ahead from hear? If this is not the right approach then I hope to be pointed towards right direction.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Stirling’s approximation can be extended to a very well known inequality -



$$sqrt2pi nleft(fracneright)^n leq n! leq esqrtnleft(fracneright)^n$$



How can we use this to prove,



$$ln frac(h+f)!(h-g)! = (f+g)ln h pm Oleft(frac(f+g)^2hright) $$



when $f+g=o(h)$



My Attempt



$$
beginalign
ln frac(h+f)!(h-g)! &= ln fracleft(h+fright)^h+f+1/2left(h-gright)^h-g+1/2 + ln frace^h-ge^h+f\ &= (h+f+1/2)ln(h+f) - (h-g+1/2)ln(h-g) - (f+g)
endalign
$$



At this point I can use property of logarithms $ln(h+f)=ln h+ln(1+f/h)$ and $ln(h-g)=ln h+ln(1-g/h)$ to extract $ln h$ terms. But that would leave a lot of other terms with itself which I'm not able to collate.



How should I move ahead from hear? If this is not the right approach then I hope to be pointed towards right direction.







approximation factorial






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 22 at 10:38









PrateekPrateek

1377




1377











  • $begingroup$
    I never saw the very well known inequality :-)
    $endgroup$
    – Yves Daoust
    Mar 22 at 10:41










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry, I should not have presumed too much. But the inequality is there on wiki, and quite straight forward to prove as well.
    $endgroup$
    – Prateek
    Mar 22 at 11:05
















  • $begingroup$
    I never saw the very well known inequality :-)
    $endgroup$
    – Yves Daoust
    Mar 22 at 10:41










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry, I should not have presumed too much. But the inequality is there on wiki, and quite straight forward to prove as well.
    $endgroup$
    – Prateek
    Mar 22 at 11:05















$begingroup$
I never saw the very well known inequality :-)
$endgroup$
– Yves Daoust
Mar 22 at 10:41




$begingroup$
I never saw the very well known inequality :-)
$endgroup$
– Yves Daoust
Mar 22 at 10:41












$begingroup$
I'm sorry, I should not have presumed too much. But the inequality is there on wiki, and quite straight forward to prove as well.
$endgroup$
– Prateek
Mar 22 at 11:05




$begingroup$
I'm sorry, I should not have presumed too much. But the inequality is there on wiki, and quite straight forward to prove as well.
$endgroup$
– Prateek
Mar 22 at 11:05










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

To continue, you can use the Taylor expansion of logarithm, just the beginning:
$$ ln(1+x) = x + mathcalO(x^2)$$
That gives you
$$ (h+f+1/2)ln(1+f/h) = f + mathcalOleft(fracf^2hright) $$
and $$-(h-g+1/2)ln(1+g/h) = g + mathcalOleft(fracg^2hright) $$



However, note that Stirling's approxiamtion won't give you the exact equality as you're writing it. What you can get from them is
$$ ln (n!) = (n+1/2)ln n - n + xi(n)$$
where $xi(n) in [lnsqrt2pi,1]$. This last term is negligible compared to the leading term, but it doesn't vanish. In the end, the best you can get this with this method is
$$ lnfrac(h+f)!(h-g)! = (f+g)ln h + xi + mathcalOleft(fracf^2h,fracg^2hright) $$
where $xi = xi(h+f)-xi(h-g)$, $|xi| le 1-lnsqrt2pi$






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    1












    $begingroup$

    To continue, you can use the Taylor expansion of logarithm, just the beginning:
    $$ ln(1+x) = x + mathcalO(x^2)$$
    That gives you
    $$ (h+f+1/2)ln(1+f/h) = f + mathcalOleft(fracf^2hright) $$
    and $$-(h-g+1/2)ln(1+g/h) = g + mathcalOleft(fracg^2hright) $$



    However, note that Stirling's approxiamtion won't give you the exact equality as you're writing it. What you can get from them is
    $$ ln (n!) = (n+1/2)ln n - n + xi(n)$$
    where $xi(n) in [lnsqrt2pi,1]$. This last term is negligible compared to the leading term, but it doesn't vanish. In the end, the best you can get this with this method is
    $$ lnfrac(h+f)!(h-g)! = (f+g)ln h + xi + mathcalOleft(fracf^2h,fracg^2hright) $$
    where $xi = xi(h+f)-xi(h-g)$, $|xi| le 1-lnsqrt2pi$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      1












      $begingroup$

      To continue, you can use the Taylor expansion of logarithm, just the beginning:
      $$ ln(1+x) = x + mathcalO(x^2)$$
      That gives you
      $$ (h+f+1/2)ln(1+f/h) = f + mathcalOleft(fracf^2hright) $$
      and $$-(h-g+1/2)ln(1+g/h) = g + mathcalOleft(fracg^2hright) $$



      However, note that Stirling's approxiamtion won't give you the exact equality as you're writing it. What you can get from them is
      $$ ln (n!) = (n+1/2)ln n - n + xi(n)$$
      where $xi(n) in [lnsqrt2pi,1]$. This last term is negligible compared to the leading term, but it doesn't vanish. In the end, the best you can get this with this method is
      $$ lnfrac(h+f)!(h-g)! = (f+g)ln h + xi + mathcalOleft(fracf^2h,fracg^2hright) $$
      where $xi = xi(h+f)-xi(h-g)$, $|xi| le 1-lnsqrt2pi$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        To continue, you can use the Taylor expansion of logarithm, just the beginning:
        $$ ln(1+x) = x + mathcalO(x^2)$$
        That gives you
        $$ (h+f+1/2)ln(1+f/h) = f + mathcalOleft(fracf^2hright) $$
        and $$-(h-g+1/2)ln(1+g/h) = g + mathcalOleft(fracg^2hright) $$



        However, note that Stirling's approxiamtion won't give you the exact equality as you're writing it. What you can get from them is
        $$ ln (n!) = (n+1/2)ln n - n + xi(n)$$
        where $xi(n) in [lnsqrt2pi,1]$. This last term is negligible compared to the leading term, but it doesn't vanish. In the end, the best you can get this with this method is
        $$ lnfrac(h+f)!(h-g)! = (f+g)ln h + xi + mathcalOleft(fracf^2h,fracg^2hright) $$
        where $xi = xi(h+f)-xi(h-g)$, $|xi| le 1-lnsqrt2pi$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        To continue, you can use the Taylor expansion of logarithm, just the beginning:
        $$ ln(1+x) = x + mathcalO(x^2)$$
        That gives you
        $$ (h+f+1/2)ln(1+f/h) = f + mathcalOleft(fracf^2hright) $$
        and $$-(h-g+1/2)ln(1+g/h) = g + mathcalOleft(fracg^2hright) $$



        However, note that Stirling's approxiamtion won't give you the exact equality as you're writing it. What you can get from them is
        $$ ln (n!) = (n+1/2)ln n - n + xi(n)$$
        where $xi(n) in [lnsqrt2pi,1]$. This last term is negligible compared to the leading term, but it doesn't vanish. In the end, the best you can get this with this method is
        $$ lnfrac(h+f)!(h-g)! = (f+g)ln h + xi + mathcalOleft(fracf^2h,fracg^2hright) $$
        where $xi = xi(h+f)-xi(h-g)$, $|xi| le 1-lnsqrt2pi$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 22 at 12:54









        Adam LatosińskiAdam Latosiński

        4887




        4887



























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