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Exact sequence of groups: proof of injectivity


Isomorphism on commutative diagrams of abelian groupsProof of first isomorphism theorem of groupSimple example of a short exact sequence of groupsDual of Schanuel lemmaSplitting short exact sequence of space groupsUnderstanding a proof about splitting of short exact sequences.Diagram with exact sequences of modulesfunctor $F$ satisfies $kerF(f)cong F(ker(f))$. $0to M'to Mto M''$ exact => $0to F(M')to F(M)to F(M'')$ exact?Miscellaneous Questions involving Tensor Products, Exact Sequences, and AlgebrasFlatness in a short exact sequence. If the













2












$begingroup$


There must be a duplicate being the question very introductory, but I was not able to find it.



We have the following diagram



$$beginarrayccccccccc
1&to& H &to & G &oversetpito & G/H &to & 1\
&& downarrow & & downarrow f && downarrow g & & \
1&to& H' &to & G'& oversetpi'to & G'/H' &to & 1\
endarray$$



Suppose that




  1. $f$ is homomorphism

  2. $H'triangleleft G'$

  3. $H=f^-1(H')$

  4. $Htriangleleft G$


  5. $f$ is surjective


Prove that $g$ is an isomorphism.




Since $gcircpi=pi'circ f$ and $pi,pi',f$ are surjective, then $g$ is surjective.



The problem is with injectivity. (A) From $g(aH)=g(bH)$ I should derive $aH=bH$. Or (B) prove that $operatornameker g=H$.



(A) Working backwards I get
$$
aH=bH
iff
a^-1bin H
iff
f(a^-1b)in H'\
iff
(f(a))^-1f(b)in H'
iff
f(a)H'=f(b)H'
$$



Now, if $g(aH)=g(bH)$ how do I get $f(a)H'=f(b)H'$?



Method (B) would probably be nicer, but no idea how to start.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    are the rows exact?
    $endgroup$
    – Alvin Lepik
    Mar 22 at 9:32










  • $begingroup$
    @AlvinLepik All the conditions are given (1 to 5), I suppose. Thus I think the answer is no.
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 9:38










  • $begingroup$
    @AlvinLepik To be honest I don't know. The problem was in the chapter "exact sequences" of some book and I added it months ago to my notes. Today was something like the third failed attempt to solve it.
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 9:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that $g(aH)=g(bH)$ implies $f(a)H'=f(b)H'$ by commutativity of right-handed square, since $f(a)H'=(pi'circ f)(a)=(gcircpi)(a)=g(aH)$ and, similarly, $f(b)H'=g(bH)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Fabio Lucchini
    Mar 22 at 10:00











  • $begingroup$
    @FabioLucchini: perfect, grazie!
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 10:03















2












$begingroup$


There must be a duplicate being the question very introductory, but I was not able to find it.



We have the following diagram



$$beginarrayccccccccc
1&to& H &to & G &oversetpito & G/H &to & 1\
&& downarrow & & downarrow f && downarrow g & & \
1&to& H' &to & G'& oversetpi'to & G'/H' &to & 1\
endarray$$



Suppose that




  1. $f$ is homomorphism

  2. $H'triangleleft G'$

  3. $H=f^-1(H')$

  4. $Htriangleleft G$


  5. $f$ is surjective


Prove that $g$ is an isomorphism.




Since $gcircpi=pi'circ f$ and $pi,pi',f$ are surjective, then $g$ is surjective.



The problem is with injectivity. (A) From $g(aH)=g(bH)$ I should derive $aH=bH$. Or (B) prove that $operatornameker g=H$.



(A) Working backwards I get
$$
aH=bH
iff
a^-1bin H
iff
f(a^-1b)in H'\
iff
(f(a))^-1f(b)in H'
iff
f(a)H'=f(b)H'
$$



Now, if $g(aH)=g(bH)$ how do I get $f(a)H'=f(b)H'$?



Method (B) would probably be nicer, but no idea how to start.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    are the rows exact?
    $endgroup$
    – Alvin Lepik
    Mar 22 at 9:32










  • $begingroup$
    @AlvinLepik All the conditions are given (1 to 5), I suppose. Thus I think the answer is no.
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 9:38










  • $begingroup$
    @AlvinLepik To be honest I don't know. The problem was in the chapter "exact sequences" of some book and I added it months ago to my notes. Today was something like the third failed attempt to solve it.
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 9:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that $g(aH)=g(bH)$ implies $f(a)H'=f(b)H'$ by commutativity of right-handed square, since $f(a)H'=(pi'circ f)(a)=(gcircpi)(a)=g(aH)$ and, similarly, $f(b)H'=g(bH)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Fabio Lucchini
    Mar 22 at 10:00











  • $begingroup$
    @FabioLucchini: perfect, grazie!
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 10:03













2












2








2





$begingroup$


There must be a duplicate being the question very introductory, but I was not able to find it.



We have the following diagram



$$beginarrayccccccccc
1&to& H &to & G &oversetpito & G/H &to & 1\
&& downarrow & & downarrow f && downarrow g & & \
1&to& H' &to & G'& oversetpi'to & G'/H' &to & 1\
endarray$$



Suppose that




  1. $f$ is homomorphism

  2. $H'triangleleft G'$

  3. $H=f^-1(H')$

  4. $Htriangleleft G$


  5. $f$ is surjective


Prove that $g$ is an isomorphism.




Since $gcircpi=pi'circ f$ and $pi,pi',f$ are surjective, then $g$ is surjective.



The problem is with injectivity. (A) From $g(aH)=g(bH)$ I should derive $aH=bH$. Or (B) prove that $operatornameker g=H$.



(A) Working backwards I get
$$
aH=bH
iff
a^-1bin H
iff
f(a^-1b)in H'\
iff
(f(a))^-1f(b)in H'
iff
f(a)H'=f(b)H'
$$



Now, if $g(aH)=g(bH)$ how do I get $f(a)H'=f(b)H'$?



Method (B) would probably be nicer, but no idea how to start.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




There must be a duplicate being the question very introductory, but I was not able to find it.



We have the following diagram



$$beginarrayccccccccc
1&to& H &to & G &oversetpito & G/H &to & 1\
&& downarrow & & downarrow f && downarrow g & & \
1&to& H' &to & G'& oversetpi'to & G'/H' &to & 1\
endarray$$



Suppose that




  1. $f$ is homomorphism

  2. $H'triangleleft G'$

  3. $H=f^-1(H')$

  4. $Htriangleleft G$


  5. $f$ is surjective


Prove that $g$ is an isomorphism.




Since $gcircpi=pi'circ f$ and $pi,pi',f$ are surjective, then $g$ is surjective.



The problem is with injectivity. (A) From $g(aH)=g(bH)$ I should derive $aH=bH$. Or (B) prove that $operatornameker g=H$.



(A) Working backwards I get
$$
aH=bH
iff
a^-1bin H
iff
f(a^-1b)in H'\
iff
(f(a))^-1f(b)in H'
iff
f(a)H'=f(b)H'
$$



Now, if $g(aH)=g(bH)$ how do I get $f(a)H'=f(b)H'$?



Method (B) would probably be nicer, but no idea how to start.







abstract-algebra group-theory group-homomorphism exact-sequence






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 22 at 9:54









Andrews

1,2812423




1,2812423










asked Mar 22 at 9:20









Aaron LenzAaron Lenz

7110




7110











  • $begingroup$
    are the rows exact?
    $endgroup$
    – Alvin Lepik
    Mar 22 at 9:32










  • $begingroup$
    @AlvinLepik All the conditions are given (1 to 5), I suppose. Thus I think the answer is no.
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 9:38










  • $begingroup$
    @AlvinLepik To be honest I don't know. The problem was in the chapter "exact sequences" of some book and I added it months ago to my notes. Today was something like the third failed attempt to solve it.
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 9:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that $g(aH)=g(bH)$ implies $f(a)H'=f(b)H'$ by commutativity of right-handed square, since $f(a)H'=(pi'circ f)(a)=(gcircpi)(a)=g(aH)$ and, similarly, $f(b)H'=g(bH)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Fabio Lucchini
    Mar 22 at 10:00











  • $begingroup$
    @FabioLucchini: perfect, grazie!
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 10:03
















  • $begingroup$
    are the rows exact?
    $endgroup$
    – Alvin Lepik
    Mar 22 at 9:32










  • $begingroup$
    @AlvinLepik All the conditions are given (1 to 5), I suppose. Thus I think the answer is no.
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 9:38










  • $begingroup$
    @AlvinLepik To be honest I don't know. The problem was in the chapter "exact sequences" of some book and I added it months ago to my notes. Today was something like the third failed attempt to solve it.
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 9:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that $g(aH)=g(bH)$ implies $f(a)H'=f(b)H'$ by commutativity of right-handed square, since $f(a)H'=(pi'circ f)(a)=(gcircpi)(a)=g(aH)$ and, similarly, $f(b)H'=g(bH)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Fabio Lucchini
    Mar 22 at 10:00











  • $begingroup$
    @FabioLucchini: perfect, grazie!
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 10:03















$begingroup$
are the rows exact?
$endgroup$
– Alvin Lepik
Mar 22 at 9:32




$begingroup$
are the rows exact?
$endgroup$
– Alvin Lepik
Mar 22 at 9:32












$begingroup$
@AlvinLepik All the conditions are given (1 to 5), I suppose. Thus I think the answer is no.
$endgroup$
– Aaron Lenz
Mar 22 at 9:38




$begingroup$
@AlvinLepik All the conditions are given (1 to 5), I suppose. Thus I think the answer is no.
$endgroup$
– Aaron Lenz
Mar 22 at 9:38












$begingroup$
@AlvinLepik To be honest I don't know. The problem was in the chapter "exact sequences" of some book and I added it months ago to my notes. Today was something like the third failed attempt to solve it.
$endgroup$
– Aaron Lenz
Mar 22 at 9:47




$begingroup$
@AlvinLepik To be honest I don't know. The problem was in the chapter "exact sequences" of some book and I added it months ago to my notes. Today was something like the third failed attempt to solve it.
$endgroup$
– Aaron Lenz
Mar 22 at 9:47




1




1




$begingroup$
Note that $g(aH)=g(bH)$ implies $f(a)H'=f(b)H'$ by commutativity of right-handed square, since $f(a)H'=(pi'circ f)(a)=(gcircpi)(a)=g(aH)$ and, similarly, $f(b)H'=g(bH)$.
$endgroup$
– Fabio Lucchini
Mar 22 at 10:00





$begingroup$
Note that $g(aH)=g(bH)$ implies $f(a)H'=f(b)H'$ by commutativity of right-handed square, since $f(a)H'=(pi'circ f)(a)=(gcircpi)(a)=g(aH)$ and, similarly, $f(b)H'=g(bH)$.
$endgroup$
– Fabio Lucchini
Mar 22 at 10:00













$begingroup$
@FabioLucchini: perfect, grazie!
$endgroup$
– Aaron Lenz
Mar 22 at 10:03




$begingroup$
@FabioLucchini: perfect, grazie!
$endgroup$
– Aaron Lenz
Mar 22 at 10:03










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

To prove directly that $DeclareMathOperatorKerKerKer g$ is trivial, note that
beginalign
pi^-1Ker g
&=Ker(gcircpi)\
&=Ker(pi'circ f)\
&=f^-1Kerpi'\
&=f^-1H'\
&=H
endalign

Since $pi$ is surjective, we get
$Ker g=pi[pi^-1Ker g]=pi[H]=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    cool!$phantomaaaaaaaaaaaaaa$
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 10:17











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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

To prove directly that $DeclareMathOperatorKerKerKer g$ is trivial, note that
beginalign
pi^-1Ker g
&=Ker(gcircpi)\
&=Ker(pi'circ f)\
&=f^-1Kerpi'\
&=f^-1H'\
&=H
endalign

Since $pi$ is surjective, we get
$Ker g=pi[pi^-1Ker g]=pi[H]=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    cool!$phantomaaaaaaaaaaaaaa$
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 10:17















2












$begingroup$

To prove directly that $DeclareMathOperatorKerKerKer g$ is trivial, note that
beginalign
pi^-1Ker g
&=Ker(gcircpi)\
&=Ker(pi'circ f)\
&=f^-1Kerpi'\
&=f^-1H'\
&=H
endalign

Since $pi$ is surjective, we get
$Ker g=pi[pi^-1Ker g]=pi[H]=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    cool!$phantomaaaaaaaaaaaaaa$
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 10:17













2












2








2





$begingroup$

To prove directly that $DeclareMathOperatorKerKerKer g$ is trivial, note that
beginalign
pi^-1Ker g
&=Ker(gcircpi)\
&=Ker(pi'circ f)\
&=f^-1Kerpi'\
&=f^-1H'\
&=H
endalign

Since $pi$ is surjective, we get
$Ker g=pi[pi^-1Ker g]=pi[H]=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



To prove directly that $DeclareMathOperatorKerKerKer g$ is trivial, note that
beginalign
pi^-1Ker g
&=Ker(gcircpi)\
&=Ker(pi'circ f)\
&=f^-1Kerpi'\
&=f^-1H'\
&=H
endalign

Since $pi$ is surjective, we get
$Ker g=pi[pi^-1Ker g]=pi[H]=1$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 22 at 10:11









Fabio LucchiniFabio Lucchini

9,50111426




9,50111426











  • $begingroup$
    cool!$phantomaaaaaaaaaaaaaa$
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 10:17
















  • $begingroup$
    cool!$phantomaaaaaaaaaaaaaa$
    $endgroup$
    – Aaron Lenz
    Mar 22 at 10:17















$begingroup$
cool!$phantomaaaaaaaaaaaaaa$
$endgroup$
– Aaron Lenz
Mar 22 at 10:17




$begingroup$
cool!$phantomaaaaaaaaaaaaaa$
$endgroup$
– Aaron Lenz
Mar 22 at 10:17

















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