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Spectral decomposition of the resolvent map


Spectral measure associated to eigenvector of self-adjoint operatorProjection valued measure of bounded self-adjoint operator.Cauchy integral type formula for self-adjoint operatorShowing an element is in the resolventInverse spectral theorem, clarification from a video.Construction of exponential for an unbounded operator.$intfrac1mu-lambdadP(mu) (A-lambda I)=I$ & Projection Valued MeasuresCompactness of the resolvent - referencesWhy denote the spectral decomposition of a bounded operator as an integral?Relation between the support of spectral measure and proportionality of the identity operator













2












$begingroup$


Let $P_Omega$ be a projection valued measure and let $R_A(z)=(A-z)^-1$ be the resolvent map.
It can be shown that $$R_A(z)=-sum_j=0fracA^jz^j+1$$



whenever this series is defined.



My question is, given a self adjoint operator $A$, and the fact that we know that $A$ = $int lambda P(dlambda)$,
how to proof that
$$ R_A(z) = intfrac1lambda-zdP(dlambda)$$



This is assumed in Frederic Schuller lecture 11










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    Let $P_Omega$ be a projection valued measure and let $R_A(z)=(A-z)^-1$ be the resolvent map.
    It can be shown that $$R_A(z)=-sum_j=0fracA^jz^j+1$$



    whenever this series is defined.



    My question is, given a self adjoint operator $A$, and the fact that we know that $A$ = $int lambda P(dlambda)$,
    how to proof that
    $$ R_A(z) = intfrac1lambda-zdP(dlambda)$$



    This is assumed in Frederic Schuller lecture 11










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Let $P_Omega$ be a projection valued measure and let $R_A(z)=(A-z)^-1$ be the resolvent map.
      It can be shown that $$R_A(z)=-sum_j=0fracA^jz^j+1$$



      whenever this series is defined.



      My question is, given a self adjoint operator $A$, and the fact that we know that $A$ = $int lambda P(dlambda)$,
      how to proof that
      $$ R_A(z) = intfrac1lambda-zdP(dlambda)$$



      This is assumed in Frederic Schuller lecture 11










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $P_Omega$ be a projection valued measure and let $R_A(z)=(A-z)^-1$ be the resolvent map.
      It can be shown that $$R_A(z)=-sum_j=0fracA^jz^j+1$$



      whenever this series is defined.



      My question is, given a self adjoint operator $A$, and the fact that we know that $A$ = $int lambda P(dlambda)$,
      how to proof that
      $$ R_A(z) = intfrac1lambda-zdP(dlambda)$$



      This is assumed in Frederic Schuller lecture 11







      functional-analysis quantum-mechanics






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 22 at 11:22









      amilton moreiraamilton moreira

      1179




      1179




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          0












          $begingroup$

          This follows from a general property of integrals with respect to projection-valued measures associated to self-adjoint operators. Namely, if $P$ is the unique projection-valued measure such that
          $$A=intlambda ,P(dlambda) $$
          then for all $f:mathbbRto mathbbC$ Borel measurable and bounded on $sigma(A)$, in symbols $fin B(sigma(A))$, we have
          $$f(A)=int f(lambda),P(dlambda) qquad (star)$$
          Where $f(A)$ is defined in the sense of the (Borel) functional calculus (see e.g. these notes, pag. 178). Even if you do not know the functional calculus, it suffices for you to know that if $znotin sigma(A)$ (otherwise $R_A(z)$ is not defined) and $f(lambda)=f_z(lambda)=(lambda-z)^-1$, then we have $f_z(A)=(A-z)^-1$, as one would obtain by formally replacing $lambda$ with $A$ in the expression of $f_z$.



          Indeed, let us check that $f_zin B(sigma(A))$. Since $znotin sigma(A)$, $f_z$ is continuous on $sigma(A)$ and since $sigma(A)$ is compact, $f_z$ is also bounded. Therefore, substituting in $(star)$ we obtain
          $$(A-z)^-1=int frac1lambda-z,P(dlambda) $$
          as desired.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













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            0












            $begingroup$

            This follows from a general property of integrals with respect to projection-valued measures associated to self-adjoint operators. Namely, if $P$ is the unique projection-valued measure such that
            $$A=intlambda ,P(dlambda) $$
            then for all $f:mathbbRto mathbbC$ Borel measurable and bounded on $sigma(A)$, in symbols $fin B(sigma(A))$, we have
            $$f(A)=int f(lambda),P(dlambda) qquad (star)$$
            Where $f(A)$ is defined in the sense of the (Borel) functional calculus (see e.g. these notes, pag. 178). Even if you do not know the functional calculus, it suffices for you to know that if $znotin sigma(A)$ (otherwise $R_A(z)$ is not defined) and $f(lambda)=f_z(lambda)=(lambda-z)^-1$, then we have $f_z(A)=(A-z)^-1$, as one would obtain by formally replacing $lambda$ with $A$ in the expression of $f_z$.



            Indeed, let us check that $f_zin B(sigma(A))$. Since $znotin sigma(A)$, $f_z$ is continuous on $sigma(A)$ and since $sigma(A)$ is compact, $f_z$ is also bounded. Therefore, substituting in $(star)$ we obtain
            $$(A-z)^-1=int frac1lambda-z,P(dlambda) $$
            as desired.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$

















              0












              $begingroup$

              This follows from a general property of integrals with respect to projection-valued measures associated to self-adjoint operators. Namely, if $P$ is the unique projection-valued measure such that
              $$A=intlambda ,P(dlambda) $$
              then for all $f:mathbbRto mathbbC$ Borel measurable and bounded on $sigma(A)$, in symbols $fin B(sigma(A))$, we have
              $$f(A)=int f(lambda),P(dlambda) qquad (star)$$
              Where $f(A)$ is defined in the sense of the (Borel) functional calculus (see e.g. these notes, pag. 178). Even if you do not know the functional calculus, it suffices for you to know that if $znotin sigma(A)$ (otherwise $R_A(z)$ is not defined) and $f(lambda)=f_z(lambda)=(lambda-z)^-1$, then we have $f_z(A)=(A-z)^-1$, as one would obtain by formally replacing $lambda$ with $A$ in the expression of $f_z$.



              Indeed, let us check that $f_zin B(sigma(A))$. Since $znotin sigma(A)$, $f_z$ is continuous on $sigma(A)$ and since $sigma(A)$ is compact, $f_z$ is also bounded. Therefore, substituting in $(star)$ we obtain
              $$(A-z)^-1=int frac1lambda-z,P(dlambda) $$
              as desired.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                This follows from a general property of integrals with respect to projection-valued measures associated to self-adjoint operators. Namely, if $P$ is the unique projection-valued measure such that
                $$A=intlambda ,P(dlambda) $$
                then for all $f:mathbbRto mathbbC$ Borel measurable and bounded on $sigma(A)$, in symbols $fin B(sigma(A))$, we have
                $$f(A)=int f(lambda),P(dlambda) qquad (star)$$
                Where $f(A)$ is defined in the sense of the (Borel) functional calculus (see e.g. these notes, pag. 178). Even if you do not know the functional calculus, it suffices for you to know that if $znotin sigma(A)$ (otherwise $R_A(z)$ is not defined) and $f(lambda)=f_z(lambda)=(lambda-z)^-1$, then we have $f_z(A)=(A-z)^-1$, as one would obtain by formally replacing $lambda$ with $A$ in the expression of $f_z$.



                Indeed, let us check that $f_zin B(sigma(A))$. Since $znotin sigma(A)$, $f_z$ is continuous on $sigma(A)$ and since $sigma(A)$ is compact, $f_z$ is also bounded. Therefore, substituting in $(star)$ we obtain
                $$(A-z)^-1=int frac1lambda-z,P(dlambda) $$
                as desired.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                This follows from a general property of integrals with respect to projection-valued measures associated to self-adjoint operators. Namely, if $P$ is the unique projection-valued measure such that
                $$A=intlambda ,P(dlambda) $$
                then for all $f:mathbbRto mathbbC$ Borel measurable and bounded on $sigma(A)$, in symbols $fin B(sigma(A))$, we have
                $$f(A)=int f(lambda),P(dlambda) qquad (star)$$
                Where $f(A)$ is defined in the sense of the (Borel) functional calculus (see e.g. these notes, pag. 178). Even if you do not know the functional calculus, it suffices for you to know that if $znotin sigma(A)$ (otherwise $R_A(z)$ is not defined) and $f(lambda)=f_z(lambda)=(lambda-z)^-1$, then we have $f_z(A)=(A-z)^-1$, as one would obtain by formally replacing $lambda$ with $A$ in the expression of $f_z$.



                Indeed, let us check that $f_zin B(sigma(A))$. Since $znotin sigma(A)$, $f_z$ is continuous on $sigma(A)$ and since $sigma(A)$ is compact, $f_z$ is also bounded. Therefore, substituting in $(star)$ we obtain
                $$(A-z)^-1=int frac1lambda-z,P(dlambda) $$
                as desired.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Mar 25 at 15:21

























                answered Mar 25 at 14:14









                Lorenzo QuarisaLorenzo Quarisa

                3,765623




                3,765623



























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