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$k(ln (k) - 1) = ln (2n)$
The Next CEO of Stack OverflowA multinomial problem (balls, bins, etc.)Calculating the distribution of the minimum of two exponential functionsGiven $f_Y(y;lambda) = lambda e^-lambda y$ , $y > 0 $, show $hat lambda = Y_1$ is not consistent for $lambda$Derivation of Likelihood Function for Random Effects ParametersFrog jumping between states, expected timeThe step of swaping terms in the Rademacher boundConditional convergence of $Bbb E[X^-1]$ for $XsimmathcalN(mu,sigma^2)$ as $operatornamepr(X>0)to 1$What is what between binomial many flip outcomes and statistical observation?Is explosive AR(1) stationary?How to interpret the proof that information cascades will form?
$begingroup$
On the last page of
https://www.eecs70.org/static/notes/n17.pdf
I don't understand where the following claim comes from.
$ln k! ≈ ln 2n$ if $k$ is chosen to be $ln n / ln ln n$
Can someone prove it / explain why $ln n/ln ln n$ is a reasonable $k$ value?
Basically, why $ln n/ ln ln n$ is a good choice for $k$ in the equality in the title? (The LHS is after applying Stirling's approx to $k!$)
probability
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
On the last page of
https://www.eecs70.org/static/notes/n17.pdf
I don't understand where the following claim comes from.
$ln k! ≈ ln 2n$ if $k$ is chosen to be $ln n / ln ln n$
Can someone prove it / explain why $ln n/ln ln n$ is a reasonable $k$ value?
Basically, why $ln n/ ln ln n$ is a good choice for $k$ in the equality in the title? (The LHS is after applying Stirling's approx to $k!$)
probability
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
On the last page of
https://www.eecs70.org/static/notes/n17.pdf
I don't understand where the following claim comes from.
$ln k! ≈ ln 2n$ if $k$ is chosen to be $ln n / ln ln n$
Can someone prove it / explain why $ln n/ln ln n$ is a reasonable $k$ value?
Basically, why $ln n/ ln ln n$ is a good choice for $k$ in the equality in the title? (The LHS is after applying Stirling's approx to $k!$)
probability
$endgroup$
On the last page of
https://www.eecs70.org/static/notes/n17.pdf
I don't understand where the following claim comes from.
$ln k! ≈ ln 2n$ if $k$ is chosen to be $ln n / ln ln n$
Can someone prove it / explain why $ln n/ln ln n$ is a reasonable $k$ value?
Basically, why $ln n/ ln ln n$ is a good choice for $k$ in the equality in the title? (The LHS is after applying Stirling's approx to $k!$)
probability
probability
edited Mar 20 at 19:07
ajfbiw.s
asked Mar 20 at 7:31
ajfbiw.sajfbiw.s
857
857
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
By Stirling,
$$ln k!approx k(ln k-1).$$
Then
$$ln k!=lnfracln nlnln n!approxfracln nlnln nleft(lnfracln nlnln n-1right)=ln nfraclnln n-lnlnln n-1lnln napprox ln n$$
I have no convincing explanation for the factor $2$. I have the feeling that $k$ should have been chosen as
$$fracln 2nlnln 2n$$ though in practice this makes little difference.
Numerical example:
Let $n=10^9$.
We can take
$$k=fracln 10^9lnln10^9=6.837cdots$$
or
$$k=fracln 2cdot10^9lnln2cdot10^9=6.989cdots$$
Then in both cases, $7!=5040$ is a pretty poor approximation.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
By Stirling,
$$ln k!approx k(ln k-1).$$
Then
$$ln k!=lnfracln nlnln n!approxfracln nlnln nleft(lnfracln nlnln n-1right)=ln nfraclnln n-lnlnln n-1lnln napprox ln n$$
I have no convincing explanation for the factor $2$. I have the feeling that $k$ should have been chosen as
$$fracln 2nlnln 2n$$ though in practice this makes little difference.
Numerical example:
Let $n=10^9$.
We can take
$$k=fracln 10^9lnln10^9=6.837cdots$$
or
$$k=fracln 2cdot10^9lnln2cdot10^9=6.989cdots$$
Then in both cases, $7!=5040$ is a pretty poor approximation.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By Stirling,
$$ln k!approx k(ln k-1).$$
Then
$$ln k!=lnfracln nlnln n!approxfracln nlnln nleft(lnfracln nlnln n-1right)=ln nfraclnln n-lnlnln n-1lnln napprox ln n$$
I have no convincing explanation for the factor $2$. I have the feeling that $k$ should have been chosen as
$$fracln 2nlnln 2n$$ though in practice this makes little difference.
Numerical example:
Let $n=10^9$.
We can take
$$k=fracln 10^9lnln10^9=6.837cdots$$
or
$$k=fracln 2cdot10^9lnln2cdot10^9=6.989cdots$$
Then in both cases, $7!=5040$ is a pretty poor approximation.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By Stirling,
$$ln k!approx k(ln k-1).$$
Then
$$ln k!=lnfracln nlnln n!approxfracln nlnln nleft(lnfracln nlnln n-1right)=ln nfraclnln n-lnlnln n-1lnln napprox ln n$$
I have no convincing explanation for the factor $2$. I have the feeling that $k$ should have been chosen as
$$fracln 2nlnln 2n$$ though in practice this makes little difference.
Numerical example:
Let $n=10^9$.
We can take
$$k=fracln 10^9lnln10^9=6.837cdots$$
or
$$k=fracln 2cdot10^9lnln2cdot10^9=6.989cdots$$
Then in both cases, $7!=5040$ is a pretty poor approximation.
$endgroup$
By Stirling,
$$ln k!approx k(ln k-1).$$
Then
$$ln k!=lnfracln nlnln n!approxfracln nlnln nleft(lnfracln nlnln n-1right)=ln nfraclnln n-lnlnln n-1lnln napprox ln n$$
I have no convincing explanation for the factor $2$. I have the feeling that $k$ should have been chosen as
$$fracln 2nlnln 2n$$ though in practice this makes little difference.
Numerical example:
Let $n=10^9$.
We can take
$$k=fracln 10^9lnln10^9=6.837cdots$$
or
$$k=fracln 2cdot10^9lnln2cdot10^9=6.989cdots$$
Then in both cases, $7!=5040$ is a pretty poor approximation.
edited Mar 20 at 8:20
answered Mar 20 at 8:05
Yves DaoustYves Daoust
131k676229
131k676229
add a comment |
add a comment |
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