Gram-Schmidt Procedure from “Linear Algebra Done Right” The Next CEO of Stack OverflowUnderstanding the Gram-Schmidt processExtension to the complex numbers for ex. 12 in ch. 6 of Axler's “Linear Algebra Done Right”Help to understand Gram-Schmidt ProofPrerequisites for Linear Algebra Done Right by Sheldon Axler.Using the Gram -schmidt procedure to find the orthonormal set (Linear Algebra)Axioms for vector space in Axler's “Linear Algebra Done Right” - distributivity of scalar multiplication missingGram Schmidt and Inner ProductA Proof for Gram-Schmidt Procedure in Linear Algebra Done RightFormula for the Ratio of Gram DeterminantsConfusing Definition of field in Sheldon Axler's Linear Algebra done right. What does “1+1 is defined to equal 0” in the definition of field mean?

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Gram-Schmidt Procedure from “Linear Algebra Done Right”



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowUnderstanding the Gram-Schmidt processExtension to the complex numbers for ex. 12 in ch. 6 of Axler's “Linear Algebra Done Right”Help to understand Gram-Schmidt ProofPrerequisites for Linear Algebra Done Right by Sheldon Axler.Using the Gram -schmidt procedure to find the orthonormal set (Linear Algebra)Axioms for vector space in Axler's “Linear Algebra Done Right” - distributivity of scalar multiplication missingGram Schmidt and Inner ProductA Proof for Gram-Schmidt Procedure in Linear Algebra Done RightFormula for the Ratio of Gram DeterminantsConfusing Definition of field in Sheldon Axler's Linear Algebra done right. What does “1+1 is defined to equal 0” in the definition of field mean?










2












$begingroup$


The following content is from "Linear Algebra Done Right" book by Sheldon Axler, 6.31.



There was a part of the proof what I don't understand is that



$beginalign*
leftlangle e_j, e_krightrangle &= leftlanglefracv_j - leftlangle v_j, e_1rightrangle e_1 - ...... - leftlangle v_j, e_j-1rightrangle e_j-1, e_krightrangle\ &= fracleftlangle v_j, e_krightrangle - leftlangle v_j, e_krightrangle \
&= 0
endalign*$



How did he got from the first equation into the second equation?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I'm guessing the basis $e_i_i$ is orthonormal? First use the fact that the inner product $langle cdot, cdot rangle$ is bilinear to distribute it to each term in that sum. Then use that $langle e_i, e_j rangle = 0$ if $i neq j$ and $1$ if $i=j$.
    $endgroup$
    – André 3000
    Mar 18 at 23:47
















2












$begingroup$


The following content is from "Linear Algebra Done Right" book by Sheldon Axler, 6.31.



There was a part of the proof what I don't understand is that



$beginalign*
leftlangle e_j, e_krightrangle &= leftlanglefracv_j - leftlangle v_j, e_1rightrangle e_1 - ...... - leftlangle v_j, e_j-1rightrangle e_j-1, e_krightrangle\ &= fracleftlangle v_j, e_krightrangle - leftlangle v_j, e_krightrangle \
&= 0
endalign*$



How did he got from the first equation into the second equation?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I'm guessing the basis $e_i_i$ is orthonormal? First use the fact that the inner product $langle cdot, cdot rangle$ is bilinear to distribute it to each term in that sum. Then use that $langle e_i, e_j rangle = 0$ if $i neq j$ and $1$ if $i=j$.
    $endgroup$
    – André 3000
    Mar 18 at 23:47














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


The following content is from "Linear Algebra Done Right" book by Sheldon Axler, 6.31.



There was a part of the proof what I don't understand is that



$beginalign*
leftlangle e_j, e_krightrangle &= leftlanglefracv_j - leftlangle v_j, e_1rightrangle e_1 - ...... - leftlangle v_j, e_j-1rightrangle e_j-1, e_krightrangle\ &= fracleftlangle v_j, e_krightrangle - leftlangle v_j, e_krightrangle \
&= 0
endalign*$



How did he got from the first equation into the second equation?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The following content is from "Linear Algebra Done Right" book by Sheldon Axler, 6.31.



There was a part of the proof what I don't understand is that



$beginalign*
leftlangle e_j, e_krightrangle &= leftlanglefracv_j - leftlangle v_j, e_1rightrangle e_1 - ...... - leftlangle v_j, e_j-1rightrangle e_j-1, e_krightrangle\ &= fracleftlangle v_j, e_krightrangle - leftlangle v_j, e_krightrangle \
&= 0
endalign*$



How did he got from the first equation into the second equation?







linear-algebra abstract-algebra proof-verification gram-schmidt






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 20 at 10:02









Dan Uznanski

7,15821528




7,15821528










asked Mar 18 at 23:35









AlgorisumAlgorisum

457




457











  • $begingroup$
    I'm guessing the basis $e_i_i$ is orthonormal? First use the fact that the inner product $langle cdot, cdot rangle$ is bilinear to distribute it to each term in that sum. Then use that $langle e_i, e_j rangle = 0$ if $i neq j$ and $1$ if $i=j$.
    $endgroup$
    – André 3000
    Mar 18 at 23:47

















  • $begingroup$
    I'm guessing the basis $e_i_i$ is orthonormal? First use the fact that the inner product $langle cdot, cdot rangle$ is bilinear to distribute it to each term in that sum. Then use that $langle e_i, e_j rangle = 0$ if $i neq j$ and $1$ if $i=j$.
    $endgroup$
    – André 3000
    Mar 18 at 23:47
















$begingroup$
I'm guessing the basis $e_i_i$ is orthonormal? First use the fact that the inner product $langle cdot, cdot rangle$ is bilinear to distribute it to each term in that sum. Then use that $langle e_i, e_j rangle = 0$ if $i neq j$ and $1$ if $i=j$.
$endgroup$
– André 3000
Mar 18 at 23:47





$begingroup$
I'm guessing the basis $e_i_i$ is orthonormal? First use the fact that the inner product $langle cdot, cdot rangle$ is bilinear to distribute it to each term in that sum. Then use that $langle e_i, e_j rangle = 0$ if $i neq j$ and $1$ if $i=j$.
$endgroup$
– André 3000
Mar 18 at 23:47











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

The inner product is bi-linear. This basically means that it can distribute across its inputs. For the purpose of my answer I am going to assume you are working in a real vector space; if the space is complex then the modifications necessary are very minor.



The bi-linearity of the inner product means that the following holds.



$$ langle a V_1 + b V_2, c U_1 + d U_2 rangle = ac langle V_1, U_2rangle + ad langle V_2, U_1 rangle + bc langle V_2, U_1 rangle + bd langle V_2, U_2 rangle$$



If your vector space is complex, then some of these coefficients will be complex conjugated.



Lets apply this identity to your problem.



$$langle e_j, e_k rangle = Biglangle fracv_j - langle v_j, e_1 rangle e_1 - dots - langle v_j, e_j-1rangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



$$= fracBiglangle v_j - langle v_j, e_1 rangle e_1 - dots - langle v_j, e_j-1rangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



$$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_1 rangle Biglangle e_1, e_kBigrangle - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle Biglangle e_k, e_kBigrangle dots- langle v_j, e_j-1rangle Biglangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



By construction the basis vectors $e_1 dots e_k dots e_j-1$ are ortho-normal. This means that $langle e_i, e_k rangle = 0$ when $i neq k$ and $langle e_k, e_k rangle = 1$ for $1leq i leq j-1$.



$$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_1 rangle 0 - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle 1 dots- langle v_j, e_j-1rangle 0$$



$$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - 0 - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle dots- 0$$



$$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_krangle $$



$$= frac0 $$



$$= 0$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













    Your Answer





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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
    1






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    active

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    2












    $begingroup$

    The inner product is bi-linear. This basically means that it can distribute across its inputs. For the purpose of my answer I am going to assume you are working in a real vector space; if the space is complex then the modifications necessary are very minor.



    The bi-linearity of the inner product means that the following holds.



    $$ langle a V_1 + b V_2, c U_1 + d U_2 rangle = ac langle V_1, U_2rangle + ad langle V_2, U_1 rangle + bc langle V_2, U_1 rangle + bd langle V_2, U_2 rangle$$



    If your vector space is complex, then some of these coefficients will be complex conjugated.



    Lets apply this identity to your problem.



    $$langle e_j, e_k rangle = Biglangle fracv_j - langle v_j, e_1 rangle e_1 - dots - langle v_j, e_j-1rangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



    $$= fracBiglangle v_j - langle v_j, e_1 rangle e_1 - dots - langle v_j, e_j-1rangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



    $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_1 rangle Biglangle e_1, e_kBigrangle - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle Biglangle e_k, e_kBigrangle dots- langle v_j, e_j-1rangle Biglangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



    By construction the basis vectors $e_1 dots e_k dots e_j-1$ are ortho-normal. This means that $langle e_i, e_k rangle = 0$ when $i neq k$ and $langle e_k, e_k rangle = 1$ for $1leq i leq j-1$.



    $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_1 rangle 0 - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle 1 dots- langle v_j, e_j-1rangle 0$$



    $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - 0 - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle dots- 0$$



    $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_krangle $$



    $$= frac0 $$



    $$= 0$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      2












      $begingroup$

      The inner product is bi-linear. This basically means that it can distribute across its inputs. For the purpose of my answer I am going to assume you are working in a real vector space; if the space is complex then the modifications necessary are very minor.



      The bi-linearity of the inner product means that the following holds.



      $$ langle a V_1 + b V_2, c U_1 + d U_2 rangle = ac langle V_1, U_2rangle + ad langle V_2, U_1 rangle + bc langle V_2, U_1 rangle + bd langle V_2, U_2 rangle$$



      If your vector space is complex, then some of these coefficients will be complex conjugated.



      Lets apply this identity to your problem.



      $$langle e_j, e_k rangle = Biglangle fracv_j - langle v_j, e_1 rangle e_1 - dots - langle v_j, e_j-1rangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



      $$= fracBiglangle v_j - langle v_j, e_1 rangle e_1 - dots - langle v_j, e_j-1rangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



      $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_1 rangle Biglangle e_1, e_kBigrangle - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle Biglangle e_k, e_kBigrangle dots- langle v_j, e_j-1rangle Biglangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



      By construction the basis vectors $e_1 dots e_k dots e_j-1$ are ortho-normal. This means that $langle e_i, e_k rangle = 0$ when $i neq k$ and $langle e_k, e_k rangle = 1$ for $1leq i leq j-1$.



      $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_1 rangle 0 - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle 1 dots- langle v_j, e_j-1rangle 0$$



      $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - 0 - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle dots- 0$$



      $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_krangle $$



      $$= frac0 $$



      $$= 0$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        The inner product is bi-linear. This basically means that it can distribute across its inputs. For the purpose of my answer I am going to assume you are working in a real vector space; if the space is complex then the modifications necessary are very minor.



        The bi-linearity of the inner product means that the following holds.



        $$ langle a V_1 + b V_2, c U_1 + d U_2 rangle = ac langle V_1, U_2rangle + ad langle V_2, U_1 rangle + bc langle V_2, U_1 rangle + bd langle V_2, U_2 rangle$$



        If your vector space is complex, then some of these coefficients will be complex conjugated.



        Lets apply this identity to your problem.



        $$langle e_j, e_k rangle = Biglangle fracv_j - langle v_j, e_1 rangle e_1 - dots - langle v_j, e_j-1rangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



        $$= fracBiglangle v_j - langle v_j, e_1 rangle e_1 - dots - langle v_j, e_j-1rangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



        $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_1 rangle Biglangle e_1, e_kBigrangle - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle Biglangle e_k, e_kBigrangle dots- langle v_j, e_j-1rangle Biglangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



        By construction the basis vectors $e_1 dots e_k dots e_j-1$ are ortho-normal. This means that $langle e_i, e_k rangle = 0$ when $i neq k$ and $langle e_k, e_k rangle = 1$ for $1leq i leq j-1$.



        $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_1 rangle 0 - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle 1 dots- langle v_j, e_j-1rangle 0$$



        $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - 0 - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle dots- 0$$



        $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_krangle $$



        $$= frac0 $$



        $$= 0$$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        The inner product is bi-linear. This basically means that it can distribute across its inputs. For the purpose of my answer I am going to assume you are working in a real vector space; if the space is complex then the modifications necessary are very minor.



        The bi-linearity of the inner product means that the following holds.



        $$ langle a V_1 + b V_2, c U_1 + d U_2 rangle = ac langle V_1, U_2rangle + ad langle V_2, U_1 rangle + bc langle V_2, U_1 rangle + bd langle V_2, U_2 rangle$$



        If your vector space is complex, then some of these coefficients will be complex conjugated.



        Lets apply this identity to your problem.



        $$langle e_j, e_k rangle = Biglangle fracv_j - langle v_j, e_1 rangle e_1 - dots - langle v_j, e_j-1rangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



        $$= fracBiglangle v_j - langle v_j, e_1 rangle e_1 - dots - langle v_j, e_j-1rangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



        $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_1 rangle Biglangle e_1, e_kBigrangle - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle Biglangle e_k, e_kBigrangle dots- langle v_j, e_j-1rangle Biglangle e_j-1, e_kBigrangle$$



        By construction the basis vectors $e_1 dots e_k dots e_j-1$ are ortho-normal. This means that $langle e_i, e_k rangle = 0$ when $i neq k$ and $langle e_k, e_k rangle = 1$ for $1leq i leq j-1$.



        $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_1 rangle 0 - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle 1 dots- langle v_j, e_j-1rangle 0$$



        $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - 0 - dots - langle v_j, e_krangle dots- 0$$



        $$= fracBiglangle v_j, e_kBigrangle - langle v_j, e_krangle $$



        $$= frac0 $$



        $$= 0$$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 19 at 2:52

























        answered Mar 19 at 0:31









        SpencerSpencer

        8,67012056




        8,67012056



























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