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Example of non negative function with finite L1 seminorm but not integrable



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowA pathological example of a differentiable function whose derivative is not integrableCollection is uniformly integrable, but individual is not integrableHow to show $int_[0, +infty) frac21+x^2 dx$ Lebesgue integrable?How to prove an inequality of Lebesgue integral?An integrable function is finite a.e.Prove $int_mathcalQ_k^c vert f vert to_k 0$.conditions on integrable function with counting measureIs my function Lebesgue integrable but not Riemann?If $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly and $f_n$ are measureable, integrable functions with $mu$ $sigma$-finite. Then $f$ has not to be integrableDefinition of Lebesgue Integral










-1












$begingroup$


I was wondering if there is an easy example for a function
$$ f : mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR_ge0$$
which has $ ||f||_1 in mathbbR$ but not Lebesgue integrable. The reverse holds, i.e. any Lebesgue integrable non negative function has finite L1 seminorm.



Let me give the definitions I am working with (Königsberger Analysis 2)



Definition: A hullseries of a function is a series
$$ Phi=sum_k=1^infty c_k 1_Q_k$$
with
i) Q_k are open cuboid (in our case of 1D, open intervals)
ii) for any x:
$$ |f(x)| le Phi (x) $$
The volume of the hullseries is
$$ I(Phi):= sum_k=1^infty c_k v(Q_k) $$
(here v(Qk) is the length of the interval)



Definition: L1-seminorm is
$$ ||f||_1 :=rm inf Phi rm; is; a; hullseries; for; f$$



Definition: a function phi $Rrightarrow C$ is called stepfunction, is there is a finite number of pairwise disjoint cuboids $Q_s$ (here intervals), such that



i) $phi$ is constant on each $Q_s$



ii) $phi(x)=0$ for all $x in Rbackslash cup Q_k$



Definition: A function is Lebesgue integrable if there is a series of stepfunctions $phi_k$ such that $||f-phi_k||_1 rightarrow 0$ for $krightarrow infty$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $f$ is nonnegative then $f=|f|$, so the questions becomes trivial. Am I missing something?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 9:03










  • $begingroup$
    @uniquesolution maybe I am missing something. Yes f=|f|. You would need to show that there is a sequence of stepfunctions converging to f in the one norm.
    $endgroup$
    – lalala
    Mar 20 at 9:10










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you are missing something, because if you assume $|f|_1inmathbbR$ you are saying that the Lebesgue integral of $|f|$ exists, and it is a basic theorem that if $|f|$ is Lebesgue integrable, then so is $f$, but in your case we do not even need that, because $|f|=f$. Are you looking specifically for the proof of this theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 9:16











  • $begingroup$
    @uniquesolution When I say ||f||_1 is finite I am not implying that it is Lebesgue integrabel (in the framework of the definitions given by Königsberger)
    $endgroup$
    – lalala
    Mar 20 at 9:21











  • $begingroup$
    It is misleading to use a conventional notation for the norm in $L_1$ and later edit your post to define it to mean something else.
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 13:14















-1












$begingroup$


I was wondering if there is an easy example for a function
$$ f : mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR_ge0$$
which has $ ||f||_1 in mathbbR$ but not Lebesgue integrable. The reverse holds, i.e. any Lebesgue integrable non negative function has finite L1 seminorm.



Let me give the definitions I am working with (Königsberger Analysis 2)



Definition: A hullseries of a function is a series
$$ Phi=sum_k=1^infty c_k 1_Q_k$$
with
i) Q_k are open cuboid (in our case of 1D, open intervals)
ii) for any x:
$$ |f(x)| le Phi (x) $$
The volume of the hullseries is
$$ I(Phi):= sum_k=1^infty c_k v(Q_k) $$
(here v(Qk) is the length of the interval)



Definition: L1-seminorm is
$$ ||f||_1 :=rm inf Phi rm; is; a; hullseries; for; f$$



Definition: a function phi $Rrightarrow C$ is called stepfunction, is there is a finite number of pairwise disjoint cuboids $Q_s$ (here intervals), such that



i) $phi$ is constant on each $Q_s$



ii) $phi(x)=0$ for all $x in Rbackslash cup Q_k$



Definition: A function is Lebesgue integrable if there is a series of stepfunctions $phi_k$ such that $||f-phi_k||_1 rightarrow 0$ for $krightarrow infty$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $f$ is nonnegative then $f=|f|$, so the questions becomes trivial. Am I missing something?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 9:03










  • $begingroup$
    @uniquesolution maybe I am missing something. Yes f=|f|. You would need to show that there is a sequence of stepfunctions converging to f in the one norm.
    $endgroup$
    – lalala
    Mar 20 at 9:10










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you are missing something, because if you assume $|f|_1inmathbbR$ you are saying that the Lebesgue integral of $|f|$ exists, and it is a basic theorem that if $|f|$ is Lebesgue integrable, then so is $f$, but in your case we do not even need that, because $|f|=f$. Are you looking specifically for the proof of this theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 9:16











  • $begingroup$
    @uniquesolution When I say ||f||_1 is finite I am not implying that it is Lebesgue integrabel (in the framework of the definitions given by Königsberger)
    $endgroup$
    – lalala
    Mar 20 at 9:21











  • $begingroup$
    It is misleading to use a conventional notation for the norm in $L_1$ and later edit your post to define it to mean something else.
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 13:14













-1












-1








-1





$begingroup$


I was wondering if there is an easy example for a function
$$ f : mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR_ge0$$
which has $ ||f||_1 in mathbbR$ but not Lebesgue integrable. The reverse holds, i.e. any Lebesgue integrable non negative function has finite L1 seminorm.



Let me give the definitions I am working with (Königsberger Analysis 2)



Definition: A hullseries of a function is a series
$$ Phi=sum_k=1^infty c_k 1_Q_k$$
with
i) Q_k are open cuboid (in our case of 1D, open intervals)
ii) for any x:
$$ |f(x)| le Phi (x) $$
The volume of the hullseries is
$$ I(Phi):= sum_k=1^infty c_k v(Q_k) $$
(here v(Qk) is the length of the interval)



Definition: L1-seminorm is
$$ ||f||_1 :=rm inf Phi rm; is; a; hullseries; for; f$$



Definition: a function phi $Rrightarrow C$ is called stepfunction, is there is a finite number of pairwise disjoint cuboids $Q_s$ (here intervals), such that



i) $phi$ is constant on each $Q_s$



ii) $phi(x)=0$ for all $x in Rbackslash cup Q_k$



Definition: A function is Lebesgue integrable if there is a series of stepfunctions $phi_k$ such that $||f-phi_k||_1 rightarrow 0$ for $krightarrow infty$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I was wondering if there is an easy example for a function
$$ f : mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR_ge0$$
which has $ ||f||_1 in mathbbR$ but not Lebesgue integrable. The reverse holds, i.e. any Lebesgue integrable non negative function has finite L1 seminorm.



Let me give the definitions I am working with (Königsberger Analysis 2)



Definition: A hullseries of a function is a series
$$ Phi=sum_k=1^infty c_k 1_Q_k$$
with
i) Q_k are open cuboid (in our case of 1D, open intervals)
ii) for any x:
$$ |f(x)| le Phi (x) $$
The volume of the hullseries is
$$ I(Phi):= sum_k=1^infty c_k v(Q_k) $$
(here v(Qk) is the length of the interval)



Definition: L1-seminorm is
$$ ||f||_1 :=rm inf Phi rm; is; a; hullseries; for; f$$



Definition: a function phi $Rrightarrow C$ is called stepfunction, is there is a finite number of pairwise disjoint cuboids $Q_s$ (here intervals), such that



i) $phi$ is constant on each $Q_s$



ii) $phi(x)=0$ for all $x in Rbackslash cup Q_k$



Definition: A function is Lebesgue integrable if there is a series of stepfunctions $phi_k$ such that $||f-phi_k||_1 rightarrow 0$ for $krightarrow infty$







lebesgue-integral






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 20 at 9:22







lalala

















asked Mar 20 at 8:53









lalalalalala

230110




230110







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $f$ is nonnegative then $f=|f|$, so the questions becomes trivial. Am I missing something?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 9:03










  • $begingroup$
    @uniquesolution maybe I am missing something. Yes f=|f|. You would need to show that there is a sequence of stepfunctions converging to f in the one norm.
    $endgroup$
    – lalala
    Mar 20 at 9:10










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you are missing something, because if you assume $|f|_1inmathbbR$ you are saying that the Lebesgue integral of $|f|$ exists, and it is a basic theorem that if $|f|$ is Lebesgue integrable, then so is $f$, but in your case we do not even need that, because $|f|=f$. Are you looking specifically for the proof of this theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 9:16











  • $begingroup$
    @uniquesolution When I say ||f||_1 is finite I am not implying that it is Lebesgue integrabel (in the framework of the definitions given by Königsberger)
    $endgroup$
    – lalala
    Mar 20 at 9:21











  • $begingroup$
    It is misleading to use a conventional notation for the norm in $L_1$ and later edit your post to define it to mean something else.
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 13:14












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $f$ is nonnegative then $f=|f|$, so the questions becomes trivial. Am I missing something?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 9:03










  • $begingroup$
    @uniquesolution maybe I am missing something. Yes f=|f|. You would need to show that there is a sequence of stepfunctions converging to f in the one norm.
    $endgroup$
    – lalala
    Mar 20 at 9:10










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you are missing something, because if you assume $|f|_1inmathbbR$ you are saying that the Lebesgue integral of $|f|$ exists, and it is a basic theorem that if $|f|$ is Lebesgue integrable, then so is $f$, but in your case we do not even need that, because $|f|=f$. Are you looking specifically for the proof of this theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 9:16











  • $begingroup$
    @uniquesolution When I say ||f||_1 is finite I am not implying that it is Lebesgue integrabel (in the framework of the definitions given by Königsberger)
    $endgroup$
    – lalala
    Mar 20 at 9:21











  • $begingroup$
    It is misleading to use a conventional notation for the norm in $L_1$ and later edit your post to define it to mean something else.
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 20 at 13:14







1




1




$begingroup$
If $f$ is nonnegative then $f=|f|$, so the questions becomes trivial. Am I missing something?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Mar 20 at 9:03




$begingroup$
If $f$ is nonnegative then $f=|f|$, so the questions becomes trivial. Am I missing something?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Mar 20 at 9:03












$begingroup$
@uniquesolution maybe I am missing something. Yes f=|f|. You would need to show that there is a sequence of stepfunctions converging to f in the one norm.
$endgroup$
– lalala
Mar 20 at 9:10




$begingroup$
@uniquesolution maybe I am missing something. Yes f=|f|. You would need to show that there is a sequence of stepfunctions converging to f in the one norm.
$endgroup$
– lalala
Mar 20 at 9:10












$begingroup$
Yes, you are missing something, because if you assume $|f|_1inmathbbR$ you are saying that the Lebesgue integral of $|f|$ exists, and it is a basic theorem that if $|f|$ is Lebesgue integrable, then so is $f$, but in your case we do not even need that, because $|f|=f$. Are you looking specifically for the proof of this theorem?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Mar 20 at 9:16





$begingroup$
Yes, you are missing something, because if you assume $|f|_1inmathbbR$ you are saying that the Lebesgue integral of $|f|$ exists, and it is a basic theorem that if $|f|$ is Lebesgue integrable, then so is $f$, but in your case we do not even need that, because $|f|=f$. Are you looking specifically for the proof of this theorem?
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Mar 20 at 9:16













$begingroup$
@uniquesolution When I say ||f||_1 is finite I am not implying that it is Lebesgue integrabel (in the framework of the definitions given by Königsberger)
$endgroup$
– lalala
Mar 20 at 9:21





$begingroup$
@uniquesolution When I say ||f||_1 is finite I am not implying that it is Lebesgue integrabel (in the framework of the definitions given by Königsberger)
$endgroup$
– lalala
Mar 20 at 9:21













$begingroup$
It is misleading to use a conventional notation for the norm in $L_1$ and later edit your post to define it to mean something else.
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Mar 20 at 13:14




$begingroup$
It is misleading to use a conventional notation for the norm in $L_1$ and later edit your post to define it to mean something else.
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Mar 20 at 13:14










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