classical logic - rules for quantifiers The Next CEO of Stack OverflowCan second order logic express each (computable) infinitary logic sentence?Logic coursework assistanceSubstitution not clear in logicStuck on a quantifier logic problemAre proofs for many-sorted first order logic shorter than single sorted first order logic?Prove each equivalence by using the rules for semantic equivalenceClassical logic without negation and falsehoodCurious tableaux rules for a curious logicpredicate logic proof (existential quantifiers)Seeming contradiction of the tertium non datur principle through a logic problem

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classical logic - rules for quantifiers



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowCan second order logic express each (computable) infinitary logic sentence?Logic coursework assistanceSubstitution not clear in logicStuck on a quantifier logic problemAre proofs for many-sorted first order logic shorter than single sorted first order logic?Prove each equivalence by using the rules for semantic equivalenceClassical logic without negation and falsehoodCurious tableaux rules for a curious logicpredicate logic proof (existential quantifiers)Seeming contradiction of the tertium non datur principle through a logic problem










0












$begingroup$


I have these formulas of CL:



(a) ∀xP(x,x)



(b) ∀x∀y∀z(P(x,y)∧P(y,z) → P(x,z))



(c) ∀x∀y(P(x,y) → ¬P(y,x)



and I have been trying to prove weather (a),(b) ⊨ (c). First I would use ∀l and then my question is, can I apply this rule for every single ∀x (y or z) and then just have many eigenvariables or is there another way?



If anyone knows of exercises similar to this for practice that would be very helpful










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 7




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure that you have to prove that $forall x P(x,x), forall x forall y forall z (P(x,y) land P(y,z) to P(x,z)) vdash forall x forall y (P(x,y) to lnot P(y,x)$ ? If you interpret $P$ as the equality, you can see that such a sequent is not provable.
    $endgroup$
    – Taroccoesbrocco
    Mar 20 at 11:29










  • $begingroup$
    In general, do you already have the completeness theorem for first-order logic at hand? Then it may be useful for any kind of derivability question to consider the corresponding version using the semantic entailment $models$.
    $endgroup$
    – blub
    Mar 20 at 11:40







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    (a), (b) $vDash$ (c) means that there is no interpretation that satisfies (a) and (b) but falsifies (c). You can check with a simple domain $D = a,b $ such that $P(a,a), P(a,b), P(b,a)$ and $P(b,b)$ all hold. In this case, both premises are TRUE and the conclusion is FALSE.
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Mar 20 at 12:58
















0












$begingroup$


I have these formulas of CL:



(a) ∀xP(x,x)



(b) ∀x∀y∀z(P(x,y)∧P(y,z) → P(x,z))



(c) ∀x∀y(P(x,y) → ¬P(y,x)



and I have been trying to prove weather (a),(b) ⊨ (c). First I would use ∀l and then my question is, can I apply this rule for every single ∀x (y or z) and then just have many eigenvariables or is there another way?



If anyone knows of exercises similar to this for practice that would be very helpful










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 7




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure that you have to prove that $forall x P(x,x), forall x forall y forall z (P(x,y) land P(y,z) to P(x,z)) vdash forall x forall y (P(x,y) to lnot P(y,x)$ ? If you interpret $P$ as the equality, you can see that such a sequent is not provable.
    $endgroup$
    – Taroccoesbrocco
    Mar 20 at 11:29










  • $begingroup$
    In general, do you already have the completeness theorem for first-order logic at hand? Then it may be useful for any kind of derivability question to consider the corresponding version using the semantic entailment $models$.
    $endgroup$
    – blub
    Mar 20 at 11:40







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    (a), (b) $vDash$ (c) means that there is no interpretation that satisfies (a) and (b) but falsifies (c). You can check with a simple domain $D = a,b $ such that $P(a,a), P(a,b), P(b,a)$ and $P(b,b)$ all hold. In this case, both premises are TRUE and the conclusion is FALSE.
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Mar 20 at 12:58














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have these formulas of CL:



(a) ∀xP(x,x)



(b) ∀x∀y∀z(P(x,y)∧P(y,z) → P(x,z))



(c) ∀x∀y(P(x,y) → ¬P(y,x)



and I have been trying to prove weather (a),(b) ⊨ (c). First I would use ∀l and then my question is, can I apply this rule for every single ∀x (y or z) and then just have many eigenvariables or is there another way?



If anyone knows of exercises similar to this for practice that would be very helpful










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have these formulas of CL:



(a) ∀xP(x,x)



(b) ∀x∀y∀z(P(x,y)∧P(y,z) → P(x,z))



(c) ∀x∀y(P(x,y) → ¬P(y,x)



and I have been trying to prove weather (a),(b) ⊨ (c). First I would use ∀l and then my question is, can I apply this rule for every single ∀x (y or z) and then just have many eigenvariables or is there another way?



If anyone knows of exercises similar to this for practice that would be very helpful







logic proof-theory sequent-calculus






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 20 at 14:10









Graham Kemp

87.6k43578




87.6k43578










asked Mar 20 at 11:25









rumetalmIrumetalmI

263




263







  • 7




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure that you have to prove that $forall x P(x,x), forall x forall y forall z (P(x,y) land P(y,z) to P(x,z)) vdash forall x forall y (P(x,y) to lnot P(y,x)$ ? If you interpret $P$ as the equality, you can see that such a sequent is not provable.
    $endgroup$
    – Taroccoesbrocco
    Mar 20 at 11:29










  • $begingroup$
    In general, do you already have the completeness theorem for first-order logic at hand? Then it may be useful for any kind of derivability question to consider the corresponding version using the semantic entailment $models$.
    $endgroup$
    – blub
    Mar 20 at 11:40







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    (a), (b) $vDash$ (c) means that there is no interpretation that satisfies (a) and (b) but falsifies (c). You can check with a simple domain $D = a,b $ such that $P(a,a), P(a,b), P(b,a)$ and $P(b,b)$ all hold. In this case, both premises are TRUE and the conclusion is FALSE.
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Mar 20 at 12:58













  • 7




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure that you have to prove that $forall x P(x,x), forall x forall y forall z (P(x,y) land P(y,z) to P(x,z)) vdash forall x forall y (P(x,y) to lnot P(y,x)$ ? If you interpret $P$ as the equality, you can see that such a sequent is not provable.
    $endgroup$
    – Taroccoesbrocco
    Mar 20 at 11:29










  • $begingroup$
    In general, do you already have the completeness theorem for first-order logic at hand? Then it may be useful for any kind of derivability question to consider the corresponding version using the semantic entailment $models$.
    $endgroup$
    – blub
    Mar 20 at 11:40







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    (a), (b) $vDash$ (c) means that there is no interpretation that satisfies (a) and (b) but falsifies (c). You can check with a simple domain $D = a,b $ such that $P(a,a), P(a,b), P(b,a)$ and $P(b,b)$ all hold. In this case, both premises are TRUE and the conclusion is FALSE.
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Mar 20 at 12:58








7




7




$begingroup$
Are you sure that you have to prove that $forall x P(x,x), forall x forall y forall z (P(x,y) land P(y,z) to P(x,z)) vdash forall x forall y (P(x,y) to lnot P(y,x)$ ? If you interpret $P$ as the equality, you can see that such a sequent is not provable.
$endgroup$
– Taroccoesbrocco
Mar 20 at 11:29




$begingroup$
Are you sure that you have to prove that $forall x P(x,x), forall x forall y forall z (P(x,y) land P(y,z) to P(x,z)) vdash forall x forall y (P(x,y) to lnot P(y,x)$ ? If you interpret $P$ as the equality, you can see that such a sequent is not provable.
$endgroup$
– Taroccoesbrocco
Mar 20 at 11:29












$begingroup$
In general, do you already have the completeness theorem for first-order logic at hand? Then it may be useful for any kind of derivability question to consider the corresponding version using the semantic entailment $models$.
$endgroup$
– blub
Mar 20 at 11:40





$begingroup$
In general, do you already have the completeness theorem for first-order logic at hand? Then it may be useful for any kind of derivability question to consider the corresponding version using the semantic entailment $models$.
$endgroup$
– blub
Mar 20 at 11:40





3




3




$begingroup$
(a), (b) $vDash$ (c) means that there is no interpretation that satisfies (a) and (b) but falsifies (c). You can check with a simple domain $D = a,b $ such that $P(a,a), P(a,b), P(b,a)$ and $P(b,b)$ all hold. In this case, both premises are TRUE and the conclusion is FALSE.
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Mar 20 at 12:58





$begingroup$
(a), (b) $vDash$ (c) means that there is no interpretation that satisfies (a) and (b) but falsifies (c). You can check with a simple domain $D = a,b $ such that $P(a,a), P(a,b), P(b,a)$ and $P(b,b)$ all hold. In this case, both premises are TRUE and the conclusion is FALSE.
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Mar 20 at 12:58











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