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why are the eigenvectors in cointegration test taken as estimates for cointegrating vectors?


How many possibilities for eigenvectors are there for one eigenvalue?Does common eigenvectors between two matrices A,B implies some property for the vectors?Prove that the eigenvectors are independent.Calculating the sum $frac12 sum x^T Sigma x$ for all $x in 0,1^n$What is the 'Algebraic' Dimension of $l^2(mathbbN)$?How Eigenvectors of $A^T$ are perpendicular to eigen vectors of A?Form of a matrix in a basis where some of the basis vectors are eigenvectorsAre the eigenvectors of $A^2$ the same as the eigenvectors for $A$? Are the lambdas just squared?Are vectors in the null space of a matrix considered eigenvectors?Modelling EUR/USD rate with Ornstein-Uhlenbeck model













0












$begingroup$


I am currently studying cointegration using Tsay's Multivariate Time Series Analysis.



when explaining the Cointegration Test(Johansen Test), the textbook explained the details of how the Likelihood Ratio Test was used. Particularly, it has used the product of the decomposed sample covariance matrix $Sigma_z$ to derive the ratio:




$hatSigma_11^-1hatSigma_10hatSigma_00^-1hatSigma_01g_i = lambda_ig_i$




p.s. the random vector $z_t=[z_0t', z_1t']$, hence the subscripts above.



It also mentioned $g_i$ gives rises to the linear combinations of $z_t$ hence $g_i$ is a feasible estimate of $beta$, the cointegrating vectors. This is what baffles me. I didn't see why this is the case.



To be honest, I don't see why the product of those four matrices was used here either, why do we multiply them to start with? what have I possibly missed here?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    I am currently studying cointegration using Tsay's Multivariate Time Series Analysis.



    when explaining the Cointegration Test(Johansen Test), the textbook explained the details of how the Likelihood Ratio Test was used. Particularly, it has used the product of the decomposed sample covariance matrix $Sigma_z$ to derive the ratio:




    $hatSigma_11^-1hatSigma_10hatSigma_00^-1hatSigma_01g_i = lambda_ig_i$




    p.s. the random vector $z_t=[z_0t', z_1t']$, hence the subscripts above.



    It also mentioned $g_i$ gives rises to the linear combinations of $z_t$ hence $g_i$ is a feasible estimate of $beta$, the cointegrating vectors. This is what baffles me. I didn't see why this is the case.



    To be honest, I don't see why the product of those four matrices was used here either, why do we multiply them to start with? what have I possibly missed here?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I am currently studying cointegration using Tsay's Multivariate Time Series Analysis.



      when explaining the Cointegration Test(Johansen Test), the textbook explained the details of how the Likelihood Ratio Test was used. Particularly, it has used the product of the decomposed sample covariance matrix $Sigma_z$ to derive the ratio:




      $hatSigma_11^-1hatSigma_10hatSigma_00^-1hatSigma_01g_i = lambda_ig_i$




      p.s. the random vector $z_t=[z_0t', z_1t']$, hence the subscripts above.



      It also mentioned $g_i$ gives rises to the linear combinations of $z_t$ hence $g_i$ is a feasible estimate of $beta$, the cointegrating vectors. This is what baffles me. I didn't see why this is the case.



      To be honest, I don't see why the product of those four matrices was used here either, why do we multiply them to start with? what have I possibly missed here?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am currently studying cointegration using Tsay's Multivariate Time Series Analysis.



      when explaining the Cointegration Test(Johansen Test), the textbook explained the details of how the Likelihood Ratio Test was used. Particularly, it has used the product of the decomposed sample covariance matrix $Sigma_z$ to derive the ratio:




      $hatSigma_11^-1hatSigma_10hatSigma_00^-1hatSigma_01g_i = lambda_ig_i$




      p.s. the random vector $z_t=[z_0t', z_1t']$, hence the subscripts above.



      It also mentioned $g_i$ gives rises to the linear combinations of $z_t$ hence $g_i$ is a feasible estimate of $beta$, the cointegrating vectors. This is what baffles me. I didn't see why this is the case.



      To be honest, I don't see why the product of those four matrices was used here either, why do we multiply them to start with? what have I possibly missed here?







      linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors time-series






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked 2 days ago









      stucashstucash

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