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Power series for $2^x$ bypassing $e^x$? [on hold]


power series for $sqrtz^2-1$ around $z=0$Function whose power series coefficients contain logarithmsPower series convergence in boundary problemExpressing $zinmathbbC[[w]]$ as a power series in $yinmathbbC[[z]]$.Power series solution for ODEIdentity involving $log$ and a power seriesProof of identity principle for power seriesSubtracting two power seriesHow to recast these two exponential of infinite power series as simple power series?Convergence of Power Series and Power Series Solutions of ODE













0












$begingroup$


Is it possible to create a power series for $2^x$ that's always convergent, and where the coefficients are all fractional (that is, bypassing the conversion of $2^x$ to $e^xlog2$)?



That is, $2^x=sum_j=0^inftyc_j x^j$, $forall$ $x$, where the $c_j$ are fractional.



Please take kindly to this question, I'm a newbie.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



put on hold as off-topic by Eevee Trainer, Alex Provost, Shailesh, Song, Leucippus yesterday


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Eevee Trainer, Song, Leucippus
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.











  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not really clear exactly what you're asking..
    $endgroup$
    – Antinous
    2 days ago











  • $begingroup$
    @Antinous I reworded the post, have a look.
    $endgroup$
    – JR Sousa
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    Such a series is necessarily the Maclaurin series for $2^x,$ and it doesn't have rational coefficients.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    2 days ago















0












$begingroup$


Is it possible to create a power series for $2^x$ that's always convergent, and where the coefficients are all fractional (that is, bypassing the conversion of $2^x$ to $e^xlog2$)?



That is, $2^x=sum_j=0^inftyc_j x^j$, $forall$ $x$, where the $c_j$ are fractional.



Please take kindly to this question, I'm a newbie.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



put on hold as off-topic by Eevee Trainer, Alex Provost, Shailesh, Song, Leucippus yesterday


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Eevee Trainer, Song, Leucippus
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.











  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not really clear exactly what you're asking..
    $endgroup$
    – Antinous
    2 days ago











  • $begingroup$
    @Antinous I reworded the post, have a look.
    $endgroup$
    – JR Sousa
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    Such a series is necessarily the Maclaurin series for $2^x,$ and it doesn't have rational coefficients.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    2 days ago













0












0








0





$begingroup$


Is it possible to create a power series for $2^x$ that's always convergent, and where the coefficients are all fractional (that is, bypassing the conversion of $2^x$ to $e^xlog2$)?



That is, $2^x=sum_j=0^inftyc_j x^j$, $forall$ $x$, where the $c_j$ are fractional.



Please take kindly to this question, I'm a newbie.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Is it possible to create a power series for $2^x$ that's always convergent, and where the coefficients are all fractional (that is, bypassing the conversion of $2^x$ to $e^xlog2$)?



That is, $2^x=sum_j=0^inftyc_j x^j$, $forall$ $x$, where the $c_j$ are fractional.



Please take kindly to this question, I'm a newbie.







power-series taylor-expansion






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 days ago







JR Sousa

















asked 2 days ago









JR SousaJR Sousa

1008




1008




put on hold as off-topic by Eevee Trainer, Alex Provost, Shailesh, Song, Leucippus yesterday


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Eevee Trainer, Song, Leucippus
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







put on hold as off-topic by Eevee Trainer, Alex Provost, Shailesh, Song, Leucippus yesterday


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Eevee Trainer, Song, Leucippus
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not really clear exactly what you're asking..
    $endgroup$
    – Antinous
    2 days ago











  • $begingroup$
    @Antinous I reworded the post, have a look.
    $endgroup$
    – JR Sousa
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    Such a series is necessarily the Maclaurin series for $2^x,$ and it doesn't have rational coefficients.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    2 days ago












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not really clear exactly what you're asking..
    $endgroup$
    – Antinous
    2 days ago











  • $begingroup$
    @Antinous I reworded the post, have a look.
    $endgroup$
    – JR Sousa
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    Such a series is necessarily the Maclaurin series for $2^x,$ and it doesn't have rational coefficients.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    2 days ago







1




1




$begingroup$
It's not really clear exactly what you're asking..
$endgroup$
– Antinous
2 days ago





$begingroup$
It's not really clear exactly what you're asking..
$endgroup$
– Antinous
2 days ago













$begingroup$
@Antinous I reworded the post, have a look.
$endgroup$
– JR Sousa
2 days ago




$begingroup$
@Antinous I reworded the post, have a look.
$endgroup$
– JR Sousa
2 days ago












$begingroup$
Such a series is necessarily the Maclaurin series for $2^x,$ and it doesn't have rational coefficients.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
2 days ago




$begingroup$
Such a series is necessarily the Maclaurin series for $2^x,$ and it doesn't have rational coefficients.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
2 days ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

No, this is not possible. This would only be possible if $ln(2)$ was rational - which it is not. The method of finding this series expansion can be done avoiding the aforementioned identity by evaluating the function at each of its $n$th derivatives.
$$f(0)=2^0=1$$
$$f'(0)=ln(2)times2^0=ln(2)$$
$$...$$
$$f^(n)(0)=ln^n(2)$$
$$f(x)=sum_k=0^infty fracf^(k)(0)x^kk!=sum_k=0^infty fracln^k(2)x^kk!=1+fracln(2)x1!+fracln^2(2)x^22!+...$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I pondered about it and came to the conclusion it's really impossible. Thanks for the insight.
    $endgroup$
    – JR Sousa
    2 days ago

















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

No, this is not possible. This would only be possible if $ln(2)$ was rational - which it is not. The method of finding this series expansion can be done avoiding the aforementioned identity by evaluating the function at each of its $n$th derivatives.
$$f(0)=2^0=1$$
$$f'(0)=ln(2)times2^0=ln(2)$$
$$...$$
$$f^(n)(0)=ln^n(2)$$
$$f(x)=sum_k=0^infty fracf^(k)(0)x^kk!=sum_k=0^infty fracln^k(2)x^kk!=1+fracln(2)x1!+fracln^2(2)x^22!+...$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I pondered about it and came to the conclusion it's really impossible. Thanks for the insight.
    $endgroup$
    – JR Sousa
    2 days ago















1












$begingroup$

No, this is not possible. This would only be possible if $ln(2)$ was rational - which it is not. The method of finding this series expansion can be done avoiding the aforementioned identity by evaluating the function at each of its $n$th derivatives.
$$f(0)=2^0=1$$
$$f'(0)=ln(2)times2^0=ln(2)$$
$$...$$
$$f^(n)(0)=ln^n(2)$$
$$f(x)=sum_k=0^infty fracf^(k)(0)x^kk!=sum_k=0^infty fracln^k(2)x^kk!=1+fracln(2)x1!+fracln^2(2)x^22!+...$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I pondered about it and came to the conclusion it's really impossible. Thanks for the insight.
    $endgroup$
    – JR Sousa
    2 days ago













1












1








1





$begingroup$

No, this is not possible. This would only be possible if $ln(2)$ was rational - which it is not. The method of finding this series expansion can be done avoiding the aforementioned identity by evaluating the function at each of its $n$th derivatives.
$$f(0)=2^0=1$$
$$f'(0)=ln(2)times2^0=ln(2)$$
$$...$$
$$f^(n)(0)=ln^n(2)$$
$$f(x)=sum_k=0^infty fracf^(k)(0)x^kk!=sum_k=0^infty fracln^k(2)x^kk!=1+fracln(2)x1!+fracln^2(2)x^22!+...$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



No, this is not possible. This would only be possible if $ln(2)$ was rational - which it is not. The method of finding this series expansion can be done avoiding the aforementioned identity by evaluating the function at each of its $n$th derivatives.
$$f(0)=2^0=1$$
$$f'(0)=ln(2)times2^0=ln(2)$$
$$...$$
$$f^(n)(0)=ln^n(2)$$
$$f(x)=sum_k=0^infty fracf^(k)(0)x^kk!=sum_k=0^infty fracln^k(2)x^kk!=1+fracln(2)x1!+fracln^2(2)x^22!+...$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered 2 days ago









Peter ForemanPeter Foreman

3,6851216




3,6851216











  • $begingroup$
    I pondered about it and came to the conclusion it's really impossible. Thanks for the insight.
    $endgroup$
    – JR Sousa
    2 days ago
















  • $begingroup$
    I pondered about it and came to the conclusion it's really impossible. Thanks for the insight.
    $endgroup$
    – JR Sousa
    2 days ago















$begingroup$
I pondered about it and came to the conclusion it's really impossible. Thanks for the insight.
$endgroup$
– JR Sousa
2 days ago




$begingroup$
I pondered about it and came to the conclusion it's really impossible. Thanks for the insight.
$endgroup$
– JR Sousa
2 days ago



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