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$lim_n sup frac1n# 0 ≤ j ≤ n − 1 : f^j(x) ∈ D > 0$


To construct an invariant measure on the product spaceWandering Sets and Recurrent TransformationsFor an invertible measure preserving system, $lim_NA_f^T(N)=lim_N A_f^T^-1(N)$Poincaré recurrence but infinite measureCriterium involving ergodicity and weak mixingProving a statement using Birkhoff ergodic theoremA condition for measure preserving transformation$mu $ ergodic $iff mathcalO^+_phi(x)cap Aneqemptyset$A strengthened implication of the ergodicityMeasure Theory: Simple Measure Invariance Proof













1












$begingroup$


Let $f:M to M$ a measurable transformation and $mu$ a invariant probability and $D subset M $ a subset of positive measure.
Prove that almost every point of $D$ passes a positive fraction of the time in $D$:



$$limsup_n dfrac1n# 0 ≤ j ≤ n − 1 : f^j(x) ∈ D > 0$$



for $μ$-almost every point $x ∈ D$.



I would try to prove that the set of $x$'s for which the given limit is zero has zero measure, but I do not know how to do it. Anyone have an idea how to get started?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $f:M to M$ a measurable transformation and $mu$ a invariant probability and $D subset M $ a subset of positive measure.
    Prove that almost every point of $D$ passes a positive fraction of the time in $D$:



    $$limsup_n dfrac1n# 0 ≤ j ≤ n − 1 : f^j(x) ∈ D > 0$$



    for $μ$-almost every point $x ∈ D$.



    I would try to prove that the set of $x$'s for which the given limit is zero has zero measure, but I do not know how to do it. Anyone have an idea how to get started?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let $f:M to M$ a measurable transformation and $mu$ a invariant probability and $D subset M $ a subset of positive measure.
      Prove that almost every point of $D$ passes a positive fraction of the time in $D$:



      $$limsup_n dfrac1n# 0 ≤ j ≤ n − 1 : f^j(x) ∈ D > 0$$



      for $μ$-almost every point $x ∈ D$.



      I would try to prove that the set of $x$'s for which the given limit is zero has zero measure, but I do not know how to do it. Anyone have an idea how to get started?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $f:M to M$ a measurable transformation and $mu$ a invariant probability and $D subset M $ a subset of positive measure.
      Prove that almost every point of $D$ passes a positive fraction of the time in $D$:



      $$limsup_n dfrac1n# 0 ≤ j ≤ n − 1 : f^j(x) ∈ D > 0$$



      for $μ$-almost every point $x ∈ D$.



      I would try to prove that the set of $x$'s for which the given limit is zero has zero measure, but I do not know how to do it. Anyone have an idea how to get started?







      ergodic-theory






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 11 at 21:21









      gt6989b

      34.9k22557




      34.9k22557










      asked Mar 11 at 21:09









      Ricardo FreireRicardo Freire

      547210




      547210




















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