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What does the notation $A^-2$ mean if $A$ is a matrix?
What does it mean when all the values of a row in a matrix are 0?What does it mean when a matrix is to the (-1/2) power?Quadratic Equation with Matrix [Prove Invertible]What does this matrix notation mean?what does it mean for the transpose of a matrix to be the negative of the matrix?What does this matrix notation mean $(A)^bot$?What will be the computational and space complexity if calculate the inverse by using block-inverse matrix method?Notation to show PSD matrix?What does the notation $[boldsymbolA | boldsymbolB ]$ mean (line through a matrix)?Why can the Cholesky decomposition be used to invert non-Hermitian matrices?
$begingroup$
$A^2$ means to multiple the matrix by itself, and $A^-1$ refers to the matrix's inverse. Would $A^-2$ be the square of the inverse or the inverse of the square?
linear-algebra matrices notation exponentiation inverse
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$A^2$ means to multiple the matrix by itself, and $A^-1$ refers to the matrix's inverse. Would $A^-2$ be the square of the inverse or the inverse of the square?
linear-algebra matrices notation exponentiation inverse
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$A^2$ means to multiple the matrix by itself, and $A^-1$ refers to the matrix's inverse. Would $A^-2$ be the square of the inverse or the inverse of the square?
linear-algebra matrices notation exponentiation inverse
$endgroup$
$A^2$ means to multiple the matrix by itself, and $A^-1$ refers to the matrix's inverse. Would $A^-2$ be the square of the inverse or the inverse of the square?
linear-algebra matrices notation exponentiation inverse
linear-algebra matrices notation exponentiation inverse
edited Mar 11 at 21:43
Rodrigo de Azevedo
13k41960
13k41960
asked Mar 11 at 21:32
James RonaldJames Ronald
1807
1807
add a comment |
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
It means $(A^-1)^2$, so the square of the inverse, which also happens to be the inverse of the square.
$endgroup$
4
$begingroup$
which also happens to be the inverse of the square!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Mar 11 at 21:36
$begingroup$
The expression has a conventional meaning only if $A$ is an invertible matrix (a square matrix of full rank).
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Mar 11 at 21:45
$begingroup$
Thank you! Also wow @KennyWong I actually tested that and found that it doesn't, but looking back I was incorrect haha. Would you be able to tell me why exactly this rule works? Do exponent laws apply to matrices?
$endgroup$
– James Ronald
Mar 11 at 21:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$left(A^-1right)^2A^2=left(A^-1A^-1right)(AA) = A^-1left(A^-1Aright)A=A^-1IA=A^-1A=I
$$
which says that $$left(A^-1right)^2=left(A^2right)^-1
$$
This is essentially the same as the proof that $$left(1over xright)^2=1over x^2$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It can be shown, via induction, that $(A^-1)^n=(A^n)^-1$, $forall n in mathbbN$. Thus, whenever $A$ is invertible, $A^-n:= (A^-1)^n=(A^n)^-1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
It means $(A^-1)^2$, so the square of the inverse, which also happens to be the inverse of the square.
$endgroup$
4
$begingroup$
which also happens to be the inverse of the square!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Mar 11 at 21:36
$begingroup$
The expression has a conventional meaning only if $A$ is an invertible matrix (a square matrix of full rank).
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Mar 11 at 21:45
$begingroup$
Thank you! Also wow @KennyWong I actually tested that and found that it doesn't, but looking back I was incorrect haha. Would you be able to tell me why exactly this rule works? Do exponent laws apply to matrices?
$endgroup$
– James Ronald
Mar 11 at 21:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It means $(A^-1)^2$, so the square of the inverse, which also happens to be the inverse of the square.
$endgroup$
4
$begingroup$
which also happens to be the inverse of the square!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Mar 11 at 21:36
$begingroup$
The expression has a conventional meaning only if $A$ is an invertible matrix (a square matrix of full rank).
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Mar 11 at 21:45
$begingroup$
Thank you! Also wow @KennyWong I actually tested that and found that it doesn't, but looking back I was incorrect haha. Would you be able to tell me why exactly this rule works? Do exponent laws apply to matrices?
$endgroup$
– James Ronald
Mar 11 at 21:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It means $(A^-1)^2$, so the square of the inverse, which also happens to be the inverse of the square.
$endgroup$
It means $(A^-1)^2$, so the square of the inverse, which also happens to be the inverse of the square.
edited Mar 11 at 21:52
Javi
2,9362829
2,9362829
answered Mar 11 at 21:34
ThinkingThinking
1,22716
1,22716
4
$begingroup$
which also happens to be the inverse of the square!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Mar 11 at 21:36
$begingroup$
The expression has a conventional meaning only if $A$ is an invertible matrix (a square matrix of full rank).
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Mar 11 at 21:45
$begingroup$
Thank you! Also wow @KennyWong I actually tested that and found that it doesn't, but looking back I was incorrect haha. Would you be able to tell me why exactly this rule works? Do exponent laws apply to matrices?
$endgroup$
– James Ronald
Mar 11 at 21:51
add a comment |
4
$begingroup$
which also happens to be the inverse of the square!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Mar 11 at 21:36
$begingroup$
The expression has a conventional meaning only if $A$ is an invertible matrix (a square matrix of full rank).
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Mar 11 at 21:45
$begingroup$
Thank you! Also wow @KennyWong I actually tested that and found that it doesn't, but looking back I was incorrect haha. Would you be able to tell me why exactly this rule works? Do exponent laws apply to matrices?
$endgroup$
– James Ronald
Mar 11 at 21:51
4
4
$begingroup$
which also happens to be the inverse of the square!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Mar 11 at 21:36
$begingroup$
which also happens to be the inverse of the square!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Mar 11 at 21:36
$begingroup$
The expression has a conventional meaning only if $A$ is an invertible matrix (a square matrix of full rank).
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Mar 11 at 21:45
$begingroup$
The expression has a conventional meaning only if $A$ is an invertible matrix (a square matrix of full rank).
$endgroup$
– hardmath
Mar 11 at 21:45
$begingroup$
Thank you! Also wow @KennyWong I actually tested that and found that it doesn't, but looking back I was incorrect haha. Would you be able to tell me why exactly this rule works? Do exponent laws apply to matrices?
$endgroup$
– James Ronald
Mar 11 at 21:51
$begingroup$
Thank you! Also wow @KennyWong I actually tested that and found that it doesn't, but looking back I was incorrect haha. Would you be able to tell me why exactly this rule works? Do exponent laws apply to matrices?
$endgroup$
– James Ronald
Mar 11 at 21:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$left(A^-1right)^2A^2=left(A^-1A^-1right)(AA) = A^-1left(A^-1Aright)A=A^-1IA=A^-1A=I
$$
which says that $$left(A^-1right)^2=left(A^2right)^-1
$$
This is essentially the same as the proof that $$left(1over xright)^2=1over x^2$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$left(A^-1right)^2A^2=left(A^-1A^-1right)(AA) = A^-1left(A^-1Aright)A=A^-1IA=A^-1A=I
$$
which says that $$left(A^-1right)^2=left(A^2right)^-1
$$
This is essentially the same as the proof that $$left(1over xright)^2=1over x^2$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$left(A^-1right)^2A^2=left(A^-1A^-1right)(AA) = A^-1left(A^-1Aright)A=A^-1IA=A^-1A=I
$$
which says that $$left(A^-1right)^2=left(A^2right)^-1
$$
This is essentially the same as the proof that $$left(1over xright)^2=1over x^2$$
$endgroup$
$$left(A^-1right)^2A^2=left(A^-1A^-1right)(AA) = A^-1left(A^-1Aright)A=A^-1IA=A^-1A=I
$$
which says that $$left(A^-1right)^2=left(A^2right)^-1
$$
This is essentially the same as the proof that $$left(1over xright)^2=1over x^2$$
answered Mar 11 at 22:14
saulspatzsaulspatz
17.3k31435
17.3k31435
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It can be shown, via induction, that $(A^-1)^n=(A^n)^-1$, $forall n in mathbbN$. Thus, whenever $A$ is invertible, $A^-n:= (A^-1)^n=(A^n)^-1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It can be shown, via induction, that $(A^-1)^n=(A^n)^-1$, $forall n in mathbbN$. Thus, whenever $A$ is invertible, $A^-n:= (A^-1)^n=(A^n)^-1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It can be shown, via induction, that $(A^-1)^n=(A^n)^-1$, $forall n in mathbbN$. Thus, whenever $A$ is invertible, $A^-n:= (A^-1)^n=(A^n)^-1$.
$endgroup$
It can be shown, via induction, that $(A^-1)^n=(A^n)^-1$, $forall n in mathbbN$. Thus, whenever $A$ is invertible, $A^-n:= (A^-1)^n=(A^n)^-1$.
answered Mar 12 at 3:32
Pietro PaparellaPietro Paparella
1,544615
1,544615
add a comment |
add a comment |
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