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Why is clifford group a group?


Center of Clifford Algebra depending on the parity of $dim V$?Why is the radical of a Clifford algebra generated by the kernel of the associated symmetric form?Injection of vector space in clifford algebraLie group structures inside of Clifford algebrasWhy are (S)pinor representations *restrictions* of Clifford algebra representations?Question about Clifford algebras (reference Matrix Groups: An Introduction to Lie Group Theory, Baker)Representation of Clifford AlgebrasFinding an element in a Clifford algebra that satisfy some specific commutation and anti-commutation relationClifford algebra vs 'universal' clifford algebra?A confusing formula in Clifford algebra













2












$begingroup$


Let $C(Q)$ denote the clifford algebra of vector space $Q$ with respect to a quadratic form $q:V rightarrow Bbb R$. Hence we have the relation $w^2 = Q(w) cdot 1$ for $w in V$.



Let $alpha:C(Q) rightarrow C(Q)$ be the canonical automoprhism $alpha^2=id, alpha=-x$.




The Clifford group of $Q$ is
$$Gamma (Q) = x in C(Q)^* , ; $$




How is this set closed under inverses?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    You can rewrite the condition as $alpha(x)Vx^-1=V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Feb 12 at 5:39










  • $begingroup$
    Ok it doesn't seem clear to me how the equality holds: the way is define $f_x :V rightarrow V$, then as $alpha(x) cdot v cdot x^-1$. This map is injective, $V$ finite dimensinoal so bijective. Is there an easier way?
    $endgroup$
    – CL.
    Feb 12 at 5:51















2












$begingroup$


Let $C(Q)$ denote the clifford algebra of vector space $Q$ with respect to a quadratic form $q:V rightarrow Bbb R$. Hence we have the relation $w^2 = Q(w) cdot 1$ for $w in V$.



Let $alpha:C(Q) rightarrow C(Q)$ be the canonical automoprhism $alpha^2=id, alpha=-x$.




The Clifford group of $Q$ is
$$Gamma (Q) = x in C(Q)^* , ; $$




How is this set closed under inverses?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    You can rewrite the condition as $alpha(x)Vx^-1=V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Feb 12 at 5:39










  • $begingroup$
    Ok it doesn't seem clear to me how the equality holds: the way is define $f_x :V rightarrow V$, then as $alpha(x) cdot v cdot x^-1$. This map is injective, $V$ finite dimensinoal so bijective. Is there an easier way?
    $endgroup$
    – CL.
    Feb 12 at 5:51













2












2








2


0



$begingroup$


Let $C(Q)$ denote the clifford algebra of vector space $Q$ with respect to a quadratic form $q:V rightarrow Bbb R$. Hence we have the relation $w^2 = Q(w) cdot 1$ for $w in V$.



Let $alpha:C(Q) rightarrow C(Q)$ be the canonical automoprhism $alpha^2=id, alpha=-x$.




The Clifford group of $Q$ is
$$Gamma (Q) = x in C(Q)^* , ; $$




How is this set closed under inverses?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $C(Q)$ denote the clifford algebra of vector space $Q$ with respect to a quadratic form $q:V rightarrow Bbb R$. Hence we have the relation $w^2 = Q(w) cdot 1$ for $w in V$.



Let $alpha:C(Q) rightarrow C(Q)$ be the canonical automoprhism $alpha^2=id, alpha=-x$.




The Clifford group of $Q$ is
$$Gamma (Q) = x in C(Q)^* , ; $$




How is this set closed under inverses?







abstract-algebra clifford-algebras






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Feb 12 at 5:28









CL.CL.

2,2982925




2,2982925











  • $begingroup$
    You can rewrite the condition as $alpha(x)Vx^-1=V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Feb 12 at 5:39










  • $begingroup$
    Ok it doesn't seem clear to me how the equality holds: the way is define $f_x :V rightarrow V$, then as $alpha(x) cdot v cdot x^-1$. This map is injective, $V$ finite dimensinoal so bijective. Is there an easier way?
    $endgroup$
    – CL.
    Feb 12 at 5:51
















  • $begingroup$
    You can rewrite the condition as $alpha(x)Vx^-1=V$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Feb 12 at 5:39










  • $begingroup$
    Ok it doesn't seem clear to me how the equality holds: the way is define $f_x :V rightarrow V$, then as $alpha(x) cdot v cdot x^-1$. This map is injective, $V$ finite dimensinoal so bijective. Is there an easier way?
    $endgroup$
    – CL.
    Feb 12 at 5:51















$begingroup$
You can rewrite the condition as $alpha(x)Vx^-1=V$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Feb 12 at 5:39




$begingroup$
You can rewrite the condition as $alpha(x)Vx^-1=V$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Feb 12 at 5:39












$begingroup$
Ok it doesn't seem clear to me how the equality holds: the way is define $f_x :V rightarrow V$, then as $alpha(x) cdot v cdot x^-1$. This map is injective, $V$ finite dimensinoal so bijective. Is there an easier way?
$endgroup$
– CL.
Feb 12 at 5:51




$begingroup$
Ok it doesn't seem clear to me how the equality holds: the way is define $f_x :V rightarrow V$, then as $alpha(x) cdot v cdot x^-1$. This map is injective, $V$ finite dimensinoal so bijective. Is there an easier way?
$endgroup$
– CL.
Feb 12 at 5:51










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

I will assume, as it is usually defined, that $C(Q)^*$ is the set of invertible elements in $C(Q)$. Then, the existence of an element $x^-1in C(Q)$ such that $xx^-1=x^-1x=1$ is, by definition, guaranteed for each $xin C(Q)^*$. What we need to show is that $x^-1$ is in fact an element in $Gamma(Q)$.



First, for each $xin Gamma(Q)$, the function $sigma(x):Vrightarrow V$ given by $sigma(x)(v)=alpha(x)vx^-1$ is a vector space isomorphism. It is clear that it is a linear transformation, since the Clifford product is bilinear. Moreover,
$$ sigma(x)(v)=0 ;;Rightarrow;; alpha(x)vx^-1=0;;Rightarrow;; v=0,$$
where we simply multiplied (using the Clifford product) the right side by $x^-1$ and the left side by $alpha(x)^-1$.



Finally, since $sigma(x)$ is an isomorphism, for each $vin V$ we have a $win V$ such that $alpha(x)wx^-1=v$. Here, we remember that since $alpha$ is an automorphism, we have $alpha(x)^-1=alpha(x^-1)$. It then follows that
$$
v=alpha(x)wx^-1 ;;Rightarrow;; vx=alpha(x)w ;; Rightarrow;; alpha(x^-1)vx=win V,
$$

that is, $x^-1in Gamma(Q)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    I will assume, as it is usually defined, that $C(Q)^*$ is the set of invertible elements in $C(Q)$. Then, the existence of an element $x^-1in C(Q)$ such that $xx^-1=x^-1x=1$ is, by definition, guaranteed for each $xin C(Q)^*$. What we need to show is that $x^-1$ is in fact an element in $Gamma(Q)$.



    First, for each $xin Gamma(Q)$, the function $sigma(x):Vrightarrow V$ given by $sigma(x)(v)=alpha(x)vx^-1$ is a vector space isomorphism. It is clear that it is a linear transformation, since the Clifford product is bilinear. Moreover,
    $$ sigma(x)(v)=0 ;;Rightarrow;; alpha(x)vx^-1=0;;Rightarrow;; v=0,$$
    where we simply multiplied (using the Clifford product) the right side by $x^-1$ and the left side by $alpha(x)^-1$.



    Finally, since $sigma(x)$ is an isomorphism, for each $vin V$ we have a $win V$ such that $alpha(x)wx^-1=v$. Here, we remember that since $alpha$ is an automorphism, we have $alpha(x)^-1=alpha(x^-1)$. It then follows that
    $$
    v=alpha(x)wx^-1 ;;Rightarrow;; vx=alpha(x)w ;; Rightarrow;; alpha(x^-1)vx=win V,
    $$

    that is, $x^-1in Gamma(Q)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      0












      $begingroup$

      I will assume, as it is usually defined, that $C(Q)^*$ is the set of invertible elements in $C(Q)$. Then, the existence of an element $x^-1in C(Q)$ such that $xx^-1=x^-1x=1$ is, by definition, guaranteed for each $xin C(Q)^*$. What we need to show is that $x^-1$ is in fact an element in $Gamma(Q)$.



      First, for each $xin Gamma(Q)$, the function $sigma(x):Vrightarrow V$ given by $sigma(x)(v)=alpha(x)vx^-1$ is a vector space isomorphism. It is clear that it is a linear transformation, since the Clifford product is bilinear. Moreover,
      $$ sigma(x)(v)=0 ;;Rightarrow;; alpha(x)vx^-1=0;;Rightarrow;; v=0,$$
      where we simply multiplied (using the Clifford product) the right side by $x^-1$ and the left side by $alpha(x)^-1$.



      Finally, since $sigma(x)$ is an isomorphism, for each $vin V$ we have a $win V$ such that $alpha(x)wx^-1=v$. Here, we remember that since $alpha$ is an automorphism, we have $alpha(x)^-1=alpha(x^-1)$. It then follows that
      $$
      v=alpha(x)wx^-1 ;;Rightarrow;; vx=alpha(x)w ;; Rightarrow;; alpha(x^-1)vx=win V,
      $$

      that is, $x^-1in Gamma(Q)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        I will assume, as it is usually defined, that $C(Q)^*$ is the set of invertible elements in $C(Q)$. Then, the existence of an element $x^-1in C(Q)$ such that $xx^-1=x^-1x=1$ is, by definition, guaranteed for each $xin C(Q)^*$. What we need to show is that $x^-1$ is in fact an element in $Gamma(Q)$.



        First, for each $xin Gamma(Q)$, the function $sigma(x):Vrightarrow V$ given by $sigma(x)(v)=alpha(x)vx^-1$ is a vector space isomorphism. It is clear that it is a linear transformation, since the Clifford product is bilinear. Moreover,
        $$ sigma(x)(v)=0 ;;Rightarrow;; alpha(x)vx^-1=0;;Rightarrow;; v=0,$$
        where we simply multiplied (using the Clifford product) the right side by $x^-1$ and the left side by $alpha(x)^-1$.



        Finally, since $sigma(x)$ is an isomorphism, for each $vin V$ we have a $win V$ such that $alpha(x)wx^-1=v$. Here, we remember that since $alpha$ is an automorphism, we have $alpha(x)^-1=alpha(x^-1)$. It then follows that
        $$
        v=alpha(x)wx^-1 ;;Rightarrow;; vx=alpha(x)w ;; Rightarrow;; alpha(x^-1)vx=win V,
        $$

        that is, $x^-1in Gamma(Q)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        I will assume, as it is usually defined, that $C(Q)^*$ is the set of invertible elements in $C(Q)$. Then, the existence of an element $x^-1in C(Q)$ such that $xx^-1=x^-1x=1$ is, by definition, guaranteed for each $xin C(Q)^*$. What we need to show is that $x^-1$ is in fact an element in $Gamma(Q)$.



        First, for each $xin Gamma(Q)$, the function $sigma(x):Vrightarrow V$ given by $sigma(x)(v)=alpha(x)vx^-1$ is a vector space isomorphism. It is clear that it is a linear transformation, since the Clifford product is bilinear. Moreover,
        $$ sigma(x)(v)=0 ;;Rightarrow;; alpha(x)vx^-1=0;;Rightarrow;; v=0,$$
        where we simply multiplied (using the Clifford product) the right side by $x^-1$ and the left side by $alpha(x)^-1$.



        Finally, since $sigma(x)$ is an isomorphism, for each $vin V$ we have a $win V$ such that $alpha(x)wx^-1=v$. Here, we remember that since $alpha$ is an automorphism, we have $alpha(x)^-1=alpha(x^-1)$. It then follows that
        $$
        v=alpha(x)wx^-1 ;;Rightarrow;; vx=alpha(x)w ;; Rightarrow;; alpha(x^-1)vx=win V,
        $$

        that is, $x^-1in Gamma(Q)$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 13 at 0:59

























        answered Mar 12 at 20:44









        Aquerman KuczmendaAquerman Kuczmenda

        665




        665



























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