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Property of the Bernoulli Polynomials


Bernoulli polynomials, ApostolRoots of some modified Bernoulli polynomialsProving $int_0^1 B_n(x) dx=0$ for Bernoulli polynomials$frac-12$ Zero of odd powers sum polynomials?Simplification of recursive polynomialsBernoulli Polynomials from Apostol's calculus bookMisunderstanding about Bernoulli-Euler relation?Multivariate Bell polynomialsidentity involving translation for Bernoulli's polynomialGenerating Function and Laguerre Polynomials.













1












$begingroup$


I'm trying to prove the following equality involving the Bernoulli polynomials:




$B_k(x)=N^k-1sum_a=0^N-1B_kleft(fracx+aNright)$ for all $NinmathbbN$.




Since this is to be proved for all natural numbers, I immediately think that I need to use induction. Clearly the base case of $N=1$ is trivial. However, I'm not sure how to handle the general case. There are two ways that I've seen the Bernoulli polynomials presented:



  • A generating function: $fracte^txe^t-1=sum_k=0^inftyB_k(x)fract^kk!.$


  • Using the Bernoulli numbers: we define $B_k(x)=sum_n=0^kbinomknb_k-nx^n$, where $b_k-n$ are the Bernoulli numbers.


I know that there are many other ways to define the Bernoulli polynomials. At any rate, would either of the definitions above be easily adopted to prove the desired equality?



I tried a bit already with the second definition by substituting $B_kleft(fracx+aNright)=sum_n=0^kbinomknb_k-nleft(fracx+aNright)^n$, but I quickly started to trip over notation. Thanks in advance for any suggestions.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    I'm trying to prove the following equality involving the Bernoulli polynomials:




    $B_k(x)=N^k-1sum_a=0^N-1B_kleft(fracx+aNright)$ for all $NinmathbbN$.




    Since this is to be proved for all natural numbers, I immediately think that I need to use induction. Clearly the base case of $N=1$ is trivial. However, I'm not sure how to handle the general case. There are two ways that I've seen the Bernoulli polynomials presented:



    • A generating function: $fracte^txe^t-1=sum_k=0^inftyB_k(x)fract^kk!.$


    • Using the Bernoulli numbers: we define $B_k(x)=sum_n=0^kbinomknb_k-nx^n$, where $b_k-n$ are the Bernoulli numbers.


    I know that there are many other ways to define the Bernoulli polynomials. At any rate, would either of the definitions above be easily adopted to prove the desired equality?



    I tried a bit already with the second definition by substituting $B_kleft(fracx+aNright)=sum_n=0^kbinomknb_k-nleft(fracx+aNright)^n$, but I quickly started to trip over notation. Thanks in advance for any suggestions.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I'm trying to prove the following equality involving the Bernoulli polynomials:




      $B_k(x)=N^k-1sum_a=0^N-1B_kleft(fracx+aNright)$ for all $NinmathbbN$.




      Since this is to be proved for all natural numbers, I immediately think that I need to use induction. Clearly the base case of $N=1$ is trivial. However, I'm not sure how to handle the general case. There are two ways that I've seen the Bernoulli polynomials presented:



      • A generating function: $fracte^txe^t-1=sum_k=0^inftyB_k(x)fract^kk!.$


      • Using the Bernoulli numbers: we define $B_k(x)=sum_n=0^kbinomknb_k-nx^n$, where $b_k-n$ are the Bernoulli numbers.


      I know that there are many other ways to define the Bernoulli polynomials. At any rate, would either of the definitions above be easily adopted to prove the desired equality?



      I tried a bit already with the second definition by substituting $B_kleft(fracx+aNright)=sum_n=0^kbinomknb_k-nleft(fracx+aNright)^n$, but I quickly started to trip over notation. Thanks in advance for any suggestions.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I'm trying to prove the following equality involving the Bernoulli polynomials:




      $B_k(x)=N^k-1sum_a=0^N-1B_kleft(fracx+aNright)$ for all $NinmathbbN$.




      Since this is to be proved for all natural numbers, I immediately think that I need to use induction. Clearly the base case of $N=1$ is trivial. However, I'm not sure how to handle the general case. There are two ways that I've seen the Bernoulli polynomials presented:



      • A generating function: $fracte^txe^t-1=sum_k=0^inftyB_k(x)fract^kk!.$


      • Using the Bernoulli numbers: we define $B_k(x)=sum_n=0^kbinomknb_k-nx^n$, where $b_k-n$ are the Bernoulli numbers.


      I know that there are many other ways to define the Bernoulli polynomials. At any rate, would either of the definitions above be easily adopted to prove the desired equality?



      I tried a bit already with the second definition by substituting $B_kleft(fracx+aNright)=sum_n=0^kbinomknb_k-nleft(fracx+aNright)^n$, but I quickly started to trip over notation. Thanks in advance for any suggestions.







      abstract-algebra polynomials bernoulli-polynomials






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 12 at 20:16









      user608571user608571

      25613




      25613




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          1












          $begingroup$

          Write
          $$C_k(x)=N^k-1sum_a=0^N-1B_kleft(fracx+aNright).$$
          Then
          beginalign
          sum_k=0^infty C_k(x)fract^kk!
          &=frac1Nsum_a=0^N-1sum_k=0^infty B_kleft(fracx+aNright)
          frac(Nt)^kk!
          =frac1Nsum_a=0^N-1fracNte^t(x+a)e^Nt-1\
          &=frace^txe^Nt-1sum_a=0^N-1e^at=frace^txe^t-1
          =sum_k=0^infty B_k(x)fract^kk!.
          endalign






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            This makes perfect sense now that I see it. Thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – user608571
            Mar 12 at 21:29










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          1 Answer
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          active

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

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          active

          oldest

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          1












          $begingroup$

          Write
          $$C_k(x)=N^k-1sum_a=0^N-1B_kleft(fracx+aNright).$$
          Then
          beginalign
          sum_k=0^infty C_k(x)fract^kk!
          &=frac1Nsum_a=0^N-1sum_k=0^infty B_kleft(fracx+aNright)
          frac(Nt)^kk!
          =frac1Nsum_a=0^N-1fracNte^t(x+a)e^Nt-1\
          &=frace^txe^Nt-1sum_a=0^N-1e^at=frace^txe^t-1
          =sum_k=0^infty B_k(x)fract^kk!.
          endalign






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            This makes perfect sense now that I see it. Thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – user608571
            Mar 12 at 21:29















          1












          $begingroup$

          Write
          $$C_k(x)=N^k-1sum_a=0^N-1B_kleft(fracx+aNright).$$
          Then
          beginalign
          sum_k=0^infty C_k(x)fract^kk!
          &=frac1Nsum_a=0^N-1sum_k=0^infty B_kleft(fracx+aNright)
          frac(Nt)^kk!
          =frac1Nsum_a=0^N-1fracNte^t(x+a)e^Nt-1\
          &=frace^txe^Nt-1sum_a=0^N-1e^at=frace^txe^t-1
          =sum_k=0^infty B_k(x)fract^kk!.
          endalign






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            This makes perfect sense now that I see it. Thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – user608571
            Mar 12 at 21:29













          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Write
          $$C_k(x)=N^k-1sum_a=0^N-1B_kleft(fracx+aNright).$$
          Then
          beginalign
          sum_k=0^infty C_k(x)fract^kk!
          &=frac1Nsum_a=0^N-1sum_k=0^infty B_kleft(fracx+aNright)
          frac(Nt)^kk!
          =frac1Nsum_a=0^N-1fracNte^t(x+a)e^Nt-1\
          &=frace^txe^Nt-1sum_a=0^N-1e^at=frace^txe^t-1
          =sum_k=0^infty B_k(x)fract^kk!.
          endalign






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Write
          $$C_k(x)=N^k-1sum_a=0^N-1B_kleft(fracx+aNright).$$
          Then
          beginalign
          sum_k=0^infty C_k(x)fract^kk!
          &=frac1Nsum_a=0^N-1sum_k=0^infty B_kleft(fracx+aNright)
          frac(Nt)^kk!
          =frac1Nsum_a=0^N-1fracNte^t(x+a)e^Nt-1\
          &=frace^txe^Nt-1sum_a=0^N-1e^at=frace^txe^t-1
          =sum_k=0^infty B_k(x)fract^kk!.
          endalign







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 12 at 21:13









          Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

          106k1161133




          106k1161133











          • $begingroup$
            This makes perfect sense now that I see it. Thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – user608571
            Mar 12 at 21:29
















          • $begingroup$
            This makes perfect sense now that I see it. Thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – user608571
            Mar 12 at 21:29















          $begingroup$
          This makes perfect sense now that I see it. Thank you!
          $endgroup$
          – user608571
          Mar 12 at 21:29




          $begingroup$
          This makes perfect sense now that I see it. Thank you!
          $endgroup$
          – user608571
          Mar 12 at 21:29

















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