Solutions of linear PDE in the sense of distributions Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Does multiplication commute with taking of fundamental solution (heat equation)The Dirac impulse and Fourier transformLinearization of Gross-Pitaevskii-EquationDo 3-D vectors of distributions (specifically vectors containing delta functions) have Helmholtz decompositions?Question on Helmholtz Equation in the senes of distributionsConvergence of a certain family of functions in the sense of distributionsShowing a solution of a PDE is bounded.Solving an PDE with the Fourier TransformFormal derivation of the Fourier transform of Dirac delta using a distributionDerivation of the Fourier Transform of a PDE

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Solutions of linear PDE in the sense of distributions



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Does multiplication commute with taking of fundamental solution (heat equation)The Dirac impulse and Fourier transformLinearization of Gross-Pitaevskii-EquationDo 3-D vectors of distributions (specifically vectors containing delta functions) have Helmholtz decompositions?Question on Helmholtz Equation in the senes of distributionsConvergence of a certain family of functions in the sense of distributionsShowing a solution of a PDE is bounded.Solving an PDE with the Fourier TransformFormal derivation of the Fourier transform of Dirac delta using a distributionDerivation of the Fourier Transform of a PDE










1












$begingroup$


Let us consider the wave equation written in the form
$$
partial_ttphi-Deltaphi+phi=0.
$$

By a Fourier transform, this takes the form
$$
(k_0^2-bf k^2-1)phi(k)=0.
$$

This has as a solution, in the sense of distributions,
$$
phi(k)=A(k)delta(k_0^2-bf k^2-1).
$$

It is easy to see that, by Fourier transforming back,
$$
phi(x)=intfracd^3k(2pi)^3left(fracA(bf k,sqrtbf k^2+1)2sqrtbf k^2+1e^ibf kcdotbf x-isqrtbf k^2+1t-fracA(bf k,-sqrtbf k^2+1)2sqrtbf k^2+1e^ibf kcdotbf x+isqrtbf k^2+1tright)
$$

that appears as a general solution of the equation we started from.



My questions are the following:



  • Is this approach sound to solve a linear PDE?

  • What does it happen to the Dirac equation $(igammacdotpartial-1)psi=0$ using this technique?









share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As long as $phi$ can be assumed to not grow too fast (so that it is a Fourier transformable distribution), it is sound to use the Fourier transform to solve a linear PDE.
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    Mar 30 at 23:00










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot @md2perpe. Indeed, it appears that the textbook solution comes out naturally, provided I change the integration variable as $bf krightarrow -bf k$ in the second term.
    $endgroup$
    – Jon
    Mar 30 at 23:09















1












$begingroup$


Let us consider the wave equation written in the form
$$
partial_ttphi-Deltaphi+phi=0.
$$

By a Fourier transform, this takes the form
$$
(k_0^2-bf k^2-1)phi(k)=0.
$$

This has as a solution, in the sense of distributions,
$$
phi(k)=A(k)delta(k_0^2-bf k^2-1).
$$

It is easy to see that, by Fourier transforming back,
$$
phi(x)=intfracd^3k(2pi)^3left(fracA(bf k,sqrtbf k^2+1)2sqrtbf k^2+1e^ibf kcdotbf x-isqrtbf k^2+1t-fracA(bf k,-sqrtbf k^2+1)2sqrtbf k^2+1e^ibf kcdotbf x+isqrtbf k^2+1tright)
$$

that appears as a general solution of the equation we started from.



My questions are the following:



  • Is this approach sound to solve a linear PDE?

  • What does it happen to the Dirac equation $(igammacdotpartial-1)psi=0$ using this technique?









share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As long as $phi$ can be assumed to not grow too fast (so that it is a Fourier transformable distribution), it is sound to use the Fourier transform to solve a linear PDE.
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    Mar 30 at 23:00










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot @md2perpe. Indeed, it appears that the textbook solution comes out naturally, provided I change the integration variable as $bf krightarrow -bf k$ in the second term.
    $endgroup$
    – Jon
    Mar 30 at 23:09













1












1








1





$begingroup$


Let us consider the wave equation written in the form
$$
partial_ttphi-Deltaphi+phi=0.
$$

By a Fourier transform, this takes the form
$$
(k_0^2-bf k^2-1)phi(k)=0.
$$

This has as a solution, in the sense of distributions,
$$
phi(k)=A(k)delta(k_0^2-bf k^2-1).
$$

It is easy to see that, by Fourier transforming back,
$$
phi(x)=intfracd^3k(2pi)^3left(fracA(bf k,sqrtbf k^2+1)2sqrtbf k^2+1e^ibf kcdotbf x-isqrtbf k^2+1t-fracA(bf k,-sqrtbf k^2+1)2sqrtbf k^2+1e^ibf kcdotbf x+isqrtbf k^2+1tright)
$$

that appears as a general solution of the equation we started from.



My questions are the following:



  • Is this approach sound to solve a linear PDE?

  • What does it happen to the Dirac equation $(igammacdotpartial-1)psi=0$ using this technique?









share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let us consider the wave equation written in the form
$$
partial_ttphi-Deltaphi+phi=0.
$$

By a Fourier transform, this takes the form
$$
(k_0^2-bf k^2-1)phi(k)=0.
$$

This has as a solution, in the sense of distributions,
$$
phi(k)=A(k)delta(k_0^2-bf k^2-1).
$$

It is easy to see that, by Fourier transforming back,
$$
phi(x)=intfracd^3k(2pi)^3left(fracA(bf k,sqrtbf k^2+1)2sqrtbf k^2+1e^ibf kcdotbf x-isqrtbf k^2+1t-fracA(bf k,-sqrtbf k^2+1)2sqrtbf k^2+1e^ibf kcdotbf x+isqrtbf k^2+1tright)
$$

that appears as a general solution of the equation we started from.



My questions are the following:



  • Is this approach sound to solve a linear PDE?

  • What does it happen to the Dirac equation $(igammacdotpartial-1)psi=0$ using this technique?






pde distribution-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 31 at 14:11







Jon

















asked Mar 27 at 15:35









JonJon

4,43211223




4,43211223







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As long as $phi$ can be assumed to not grow too fast (so that it is a Fourier transformable distribution), it is sound to use the Fourier transform to solve a linear PDE.
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    Mar 30 at 23:00










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot @md2perpe. Indeed, it appears that the textbook solution comes out naturally, provided I change the integration variable as $bf krightarrow -bf k$ in the second term.
    $endgroup$
    – Jon
    Mar 30 at 23:09












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As long as $phi$ can be assumed to not grow too fast (so that it is a Fourier transformable distribution), it is sound to use the Fourier transform to solve a linear PDE.
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    Mar 30 at 23:00










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot @md2perpe. Indeed, it appears that the textbook solution comes out naturally, provided I change the integration variable as $bf krightarrow -bf k$ in the second term.
    $endgroup$
    – Jon
    Mar 30 at 23:09







1




1




$begingroup$
As long as $phi$ can be assumed to not grow too fast (so that it is a Fourier transformable distribution), it is sound to use the Fourier transform to solve a linear PDE.
$endgroup$
– md2perpe
Mar 30 at 23:00




$begingroup$
As long as $phi$ can be assumed to not grow too fast (so that it is a Fourier transformable distribution), it is sound to use the Fourier transform to solve a linear PDE.
$endgroup$
– md2perpe
Mar 30 at 23:00












$begingroup$
Thanks a lot @md2perpe. Indeed, it appears that the textbook solution comes out naturally, provided I change the integration variable as $bf krightarrow -bf k$ in the second term.
$endgroup$
– Jon
Mar 30 at 23:09




$begingroup$
Thanks a lot @md2perpe. Indeed, it appears that the textbook solution comes out naturally, provided I change the integration variable as $bf krightarrow -bf k$ in the second term.
$endgroup$
– Jon
Mar 30 at 23:09










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