Proof Verification: $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) , , forallsigmainS_n$ Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Determine sign of a permutation, calculate number of elements in the subgroup of permutations with sign = 1Equations over permutationsSign of Composition of PermutationsInversions and Multiplicativity of the Sign of a PermutationSign of permutation. Confusing exampleSign of composition of transpositionsHow to show that $sgn(sigma) = prod_1 leq i < j leq n fraci-jsigma(i) - sigma(j)$ ?The sign function is a homomorphismProve that sgn is a homomorphism from $S_nto1,-1$.The number of inversions in a permutation is equal to the number of its inverse permutation.

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Proof Verification: $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) , , forallsigmainS_n$



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Determine sign of a permutation, calculate number of elements in the subgroup of permutations with sign = 1Equations over permutationsSign of Composition of PermutationsInversions and Multiplicativity of the Sign of a PermutationSign of permutation. Confusing exampleSign of composition of transpositionsHow to show that $sgn(sigma) = prod_1 leq i < j leq n fraci-jsigma(i) - sigma(j)$ ?The sign function is a homomorphismProve that sgn is a homomorphism from $S_nto1,-1$.The number of inversions in a permutation is equal to the number of its inverse permutation.










1












$begingroup$


Not certain whether my proof is right, would appreciate it if I could get some feedback on it. Also, the epsilon here is the sign function of the permutation so $epsilon=sgn$



Proof:



Since the mapping $ , , epsilon:S_nrightarrowpm1$ is a group homomorphism, I'll use the fact that
beginequation
epsilon(sigmatau)=epsilon(sigma)cdotepsilon(tau)
endequation

And let $tau=sigma^-1$ which will give us $epsilon(sigmasigma^-1)=epsilon(e)$ with $e$ the identity permutation. And since the identity permutation has sign $1$ we have that $epsilon(sigma)cdotepsilon(sigma^-1)=1$.



Now since $epsilon(sigma)=(-1)^textnumber of inversions of , sigma$ and $epsilon(sigma^-1)=(-1)^textnumber of inversions of , sigma^-1$ let $n$ and $m$ denote those powers respectively (to avoid cumbersome notation) we then have that
beginalign
&(-1)^ncdot(-1)^m=1\
&(-1)^n+m=(-1)^2\
&n=m-2
endalign

And since $m-2$ doesn't alter the sign of $(-1)$ (there's a better way of saying this) we have that the number of both inversions is the same and hence the sign of both permutations is also the same.



How does this look?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    Not certain whether my proof is right, would appreciate it if I could get some feedback on it. Also, the epsilon here is the sign function of the permutation so $epsilon=sgn$



    Proof:



    Since the mapping $ , , epsilon:S_nrightarrowpm1$ is a group homomorphism, I'll use the fact that
    beginequation
    epsilon(sigmatau)=epsilon(sigma)cdotepsilon(tau)
    endequation

    And let $tau=sigma^-1$ which will give us $epsilon(sigmasigma^-1)=epsilon(e)$ with $e$ the identity permutation. And since the identity permutation has sign $1$ we have that $epsilon(sigma)cdotepsilon(sigma^-1)=1$.



    Now since $epsilon(sigma)=(-1)^textnumber of inversions of , sigma$ and $epsilon(sigma^-1)=(-1)^textnumber of inversions of , sigma^-1$ let $n$ and $m$ denote those powers respectively (to avoid cumbersome notation) we then have that
    beginalign
    &(-1)^ncdot(-1)^m=1\
    &(-1)^n+m=(-1)^2\
    &n=m-2
    endalign

    And since $m-2$ doesn't alter the sign of $(-1)$ (there's a better way of saying this) we have that the number of both inversions is the same and hence the sign of both permutations is also the same.



    How does this look?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Not certain whether my proof is right, would appreciate it if I could get some feedback on it. Also, the epsilon here is the sign function of the permutation so $epsilon=sgn$



      Proof:



      Since the mapping $ , , epsilon:S_nrightarrowpm1$ is a group homomorphism, I'll use the fact that
      beginequation
      epsilon(sigmatau)=epsilon(sigma)cdotepsilon(tau)
      endequation

      And let $tau=sigma^-1$ which will give us $epsilon(sigmasigma^-1)=epsilon(e)$ with $e$ the identity permutation. And since the identity permutation has sign $1$ we have that $epsilon(sigma)cdotepsilon(sigma^-1)=1$.



      Now since $epsilon(sigma)=(-1)^textnumber of inversions of , sigma$ and $epsilon(sigma^-1)=(-1)^textnumber of inversions of , sigma^-1$ let $n$ and $m$ denote those powers respectively (to avoid cumbersome notation) we then have that
      beginalign
      &(-1)^ncdot(-1)^m=1\
      &(-1)^n+m=(-1)^2\
      &n=m-2
      endalign

      And since $m-2$ doesn't alter the sign of $(-1)$ (there's a better way of saying this) we have that the number of both inversions is the same and hence the sign of both permutations is also the same.



      How does this look?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Not certain whether my proof is right, would appreciate it if I could get some feedback on it. Also, the epsilon here is the sign function of the permutation so $epsilon=sgn$



      Proof:



      Since the mapping $ , , epsilon:S_nrightarrowpm1$ is a group homomorphism, I'll use the fact that
      beginequation
      epsilon(sigmatau)=epsilon(sigma)cdotepsilon(tau)
      endequation

      And let $tau=sigma^-1$ which will give us $epsilon(sigmasigma^-1)=epsilon(e)$ with $e$ the identity permutation. And since the identity permutation has sign $1$ we have that $epsilon(sigma)cdotepsilon(sigma^-1)=1$.



      Now since $epsilon(sigma)=(-1)^textnumber of inversions of , sigma$ and $epsilon(sigma^-1)=(-1)^textnumber of inversions of , sigma^-1$ let $n$ and $m$ denote those powers respectively (to avoid cumbersome notation) we then have that
      beginalign
      &(-1)^ncdot(-1)^m=1\
      &(-1)^n+m=(-1)^2\
      &n=m-2
      endalign

      And since $m-2$ doesn't alter the sign of $(-1)$ (there's a better way of saying this) we have that the number of both inversions is the same and hence the sign of both permutations is also the same.



      How does this look?







      abstract-algebra permutations






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 27 at 17:36









      kareem bokaikareem bokai

      868




      868




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

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          3












          $begingroup$

          You can't conclude that $n = m - 2$, only that $n+m$ is even, but that's enough to finish. (It's also just not true: $(12)^-1 = (12)$, so in this case $n=m$, not $n=m-2$.)



          You can also stop at $epsilon(sigma) cdot epsilon(sigma^-1) = 1$. This already tells you that either $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) = 1$ or $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) = -1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I see what you mean with the first remark, although am still not sure how you'd have $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1)=1$ or $-1$ from the first statement
            $endgroup$
            – kareem bokai
            Mar 27 at 18:01











          • $begingroup$
            Both $epsilon(sigma)$ and $epsilon(sigma^-1)$ are either $1$ or $-1$. If they are to multiply to $1$, you cannot have them be unequal.
            $endgroup$
            – csprun
            Mar 27 at 18:02










          • $begingroup$
            Ah right ofcourse.. Thanks for the feedback :)
            $endgroup$
            – kareem bokai
            Mar 27 at 18:06


















          2












          $begingroup$

          When you say $n=m-2$, that should be $nequiv m-2mod 2$. The value of $epsilon(sigma)$ doesn't tell you what that exponent is, only that it's even or odd.



          In fact, nothing about this depends on that "number of inversions" formula. It's entirely a consequence of $epsilon$ being a homomorphism to the two-element group.



          The way I would phrase it? $epsilon(sigma^-1)=(epsilon(sigma))^-1$ since $epsilon$ is a homomorphism. Then, in the two-element group $1,-1$, every element is its own inverse, so $(epsilon(sigma))^-1=epsilon(sigma)$. Done.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            2












            $begingroup$

            You cannot conclude from $(-1)^n+m=(-1)^2$ that $n=m-2$. What you can conclude is that $n+m$ is even, and that is enough, because that means that $m$ and $n$ have the same parity.



            There is a shorter proof: just note that assuming what you want is not true, then $epsilon(sigma) cdot epsilon(sigma^-1) = -1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              3 Answers
              3






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              3 Answers
              3






              active

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              active

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              active

              oldest

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              3












              $begingroup$

              You can't conclude that $n = m - 2$, only that $n+m$ is even, but that's enough to finish. (It's also just not true: $(12)^-1 = (12)$, so in this case $n=m$, not $n=m-2$.)



              You can also stop at $epsilon(sigma) cdot epsilon(sigma^-1) = 1$. This already tells you that either $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) = 1$ or $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) = -1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                I see what you mean with the first remark, although am still not sure how you'd have $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1)=1$ or $-1$ from the first statement
                $endgroup$
                – kareem bokai
                Mar 27 at 18:01











              • $begingroup$
                Both $epsilon(sigma)$ and $epsilon(sigma^-1)$ are either $1$ or $-1$. If they are to multiply to $1$, you cannot have them be unequal.
                $endgroup$
                – csprun
                Mar 27 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Ah right ofcourse.. Thanks for the feedback :)
                $endgroup$
                – kareem bokai
                Mar 27 at 18:06















              3












              $begingroup$

              You can't conclude that $n = m - 2$, only that $n+m$ is even, but that's enough to finish. (It's also just not true: $(12)^-1 = (12)$, so in this case $n=m$, not $n=m-2$.)



              You can also stop at $epsilon(sigma) cdot epsilon(sigma^-1) = 1$. This already tells you that either $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) = 1$ or $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) = -1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                I see what you mean with the first remark, although am still not sure how you'd have $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1)=1$ or $-1$ from the first statement
                $endgroup$
                – kareem bokai
                Mar 27 at 18:01











              • $begingroup$
                Both $epsilon(sigma)$ and $epsilon(sigma^-1)$ are either $1$ or $-1$. If they are to multiply to $1$, you cannot have them be unequal.
                $endgroup$
                – csprun
                Mar 27 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Ah right ofcourse.. Thanks for the feedback :)
                $endgroup$
                – kareem bokai
                Mar 27 at 18:06













              3












              3








              3





              $begingroup$

              You can't conclude that $n = m - 2$, only that $n+m$ is even, but that's enough to finish. (It's also just not true: $(12)^-1 = (12)$, so in this case $n=m$, not $n=m-2$.)



              You can also stop at $epsilon(sigma) cdot epsilon(sigma^-1) = 1$. This already tells you that either $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) = 1$ or $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) = -1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              You can't conclude that $n = m - 2$, only that $n+m$ is even, but that's enough to finish. (It's also just not true: $(12)^-1 = (12)$, so in this case $n=m$, not $n=m-2$.)



              You can also stop at $epsilon(sigma) cdot epsilon(sigma^-1) = 1$. This already tells you that either $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) = 1$ or $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1) = -1$.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Mar 27 at 17:48









              cspruncsprun

              2,839211




              2,839211











              • $begingroup$
                I see what you mean with the first remark, although am still not sure how you'd have $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1)=1$ or $-1$ from the first statement
                $endgroup$
                – kareem bokai
                Mar 27 at 18:01











              • $begingroup$
                Both $epsilon(sigma)$ and $epsilon(sigma^-1)$ are either $1$ or $-1$. If they are to multiply to $1$, you cannot have them be unequal.
                $endgroup$
                – csprun
                Mar 27 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Ah right ofcourse.. Thanks for the feedback :)
                $endgroup$
                – kareem bokai
                Mar 27 at 18:06
















              • $begingroup$
                I see what you mean with the first remark, although am still not sure how you'd have $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1)=1$ or $-1$ from the first statement
                $endgroup$
                – kareem bokai
                Mar 27 at 18:01











              • $begingroup$
                Both $epsilon(sigma)$ and $epsilon(sigma^-1)$ are either $1$ or $-1$. If they are to multiply to $1$, you cannot have them be unequal.
                $endgroup$
                – csprun
                Mar 27 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Ah right ofcourse.. Thanks for the feedback :)
                $endgroup$
                – kareem bokai
                Mar 27 at 18:06















              $begingroup$
              I see what you mean with the first remark, although am still not sure how you'd have $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1)=1$ or $-1$ from the first statement
              $endgroup$
              – kareem bokai
              Mar 27 at 18:01





              $begingroup$
              I see what you mean with the first remark, although am still not sure how you'd have $epsilon(sigma)=epsilon(sigma^-1)=1$ or $-1$ from the first statement
              $endgroup$
              – kareem bokai
              Mar 27 at 18:01













              $begingroup$
              Both $epsilon(sigma)$ and $epsilon(sigma^-1)$ are either $1$ or $-1$. If they are to multiply to $1$, you cannot have them be unequal.
              $endgroup$
              – csprun
              Mar 27 at 18:02




              $begingroup$
              Both $epsilon(sigma)$ and $epsilon(sigma^-1)$ are either $1$ or $-1$. If they are to multiply to $1$, you cannot have them be unequal.
              $endgroup$
              – csprun
              Mar 27 at 18:02












              $begingroup$
              Ah right ofcourse.. Thanks for the feedback :)
              $endgroup$
              – kareem bokai
              Mar 27 at 18:06




              $begingroup$
              Ah right ofcourse.. Thanks for the feedback :)
              $endgroup$
              – kareem bokai
              Mar 27 at 18:06











              2












              $begingroup$

              When you say $n=m-2$, that should be $nequiv m-2mod 2$. The value of $epsilon(sigma)$ doesn't tell you what that exponent is, only that it's even or odd.



              In fact, nothing about this depends on that "number of inversions" formula. It's entirely a consequence of $epsilon$ being a homomorphism to the two-element group.



              The way I would phrase it? $epsilon(sigma^-1)=(epsilon(sigma))^-1$ since $epsilon$ is a homomorphism. Then, in the two-element group $1,-1$, every element is its own inverse, so $(epsilon(sigma))^-1=epsilon(sigma)$. Done.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                2












                $begingroup$

                When you say $n=m-2$, that should be $nequiv m-2mod 2$. The value of $epsilon(sigma)$ doesn't tell you what that exponent is, only that it's even or odd.



                In fact, nothing about this depends on that "number of inversions" formula. It's entirely a consequence of $epsilon$ being a homomorphism to the two-element group.



                The way I would phrase it? $epsilon(sigma^-1)=(epsilon(sigma))^-1$ since $epsilon$ is a homomorphism. Then, in the two-element group $1,-1$, every element is its own inverse, so $(epsilon(sigma))^-1=epsilon(sigma)$. Done.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  When you say $n=m-2$, that should be $nequiv m-2mod 2$. The value of $epsilon(sigma)$ doesn't tell you what that exponent is, only that it's even or odd.



                  In fact, nothing about this depends on that "number of inversions" formula. It's entirely a consequence of $epsilon$ being a homomorphism to the two-element group.



                  The way I would phrase it? $epsilon(sigma^-1)=(epsilon(sigma))^-1$ since $epsilon$ is a homomorphism. Then, in the two-element group $1,-1$, every element is its own inverse, so $(epsilon(sigma))^-1=epsilon(sigma)$. Done.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  When you say $n=m-2$, that should be $nequiv m-2mod 2$. The value of $epsilon(sigma)$ doesn't tell you what that exponent is, only that it's even or odd.



                  In fact, nothing about this depends on that "number of inversions" formula. It's entirely a consequence of $epsilon$ being a homomorphism to the two-element group.



                  The way I would phrase it? $epsilon(sigma^-1)=(epsilon(sigma))^-1$ since $epsilon$ is a homomorphism. Then, in the two-element group $1,-1$, every element is its own inverse, so $(epsilon(sigma))^-1=epsilon(sigma)$. Done.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 27 at 17:48









                  jmerryjmerry

                  17k11633




                  17k11633





















                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      You cannot conclude from $(-1)^n+m=(-1)^2$ that $n=m-2$. What you can conclude is that $n+m$ is even, and that is enough, because that means that $m$ and $n$ have the same parity.



                      There is a shorter proof: just note that assuming what you want is not true, then $epsilon(sigma) cdot epsilon(sigma^-1) = -1$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        You cannot conclude from $(-1)^n+m=(-1)^2$ that $n=m-2$. What you can conclude is that $n+m$ is even, and that is enough, because that means that $m$ and $n$ have the same parity.



                        There is a shorter proof: just note that assuming what you want is not true, then $epsilon(sigma) cdot epsilon(sigma^-1) = -1$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          2












                          2








                          2





                          $begingroup$

                          You cannot conclude from $(-1)^n+m=(-1)^2$ that $n=m-2$. What you can conclude is that $n+m$ is even, and that is enough, because that means that $m$ and $n$ have the same parity.



                          There is a shorter proof: just note that assuming what you want is not true, then $epsilon(sigma) cdot epsilon(sigma^-1) = -1$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          You cannot conclude from $(-1)^n+m=(-1)^2$ that $n=m-2$. What you can conclude is that $n+m$ is even, and that is enough, because that means that $m$ and $n$ have the same parity.



                          There is a shorter proof: just note that assuming what you want is not true, then $epsilon(sigma) cdot epsilon(sigma^-1) = -1$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Mar 27 at 17:49









                          Torsten SchoenebergTorsten Schoeneberg

                          4,6342834




                          4,6342834



























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