Solution for a functional equation Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Is it possible to have $f(x)f(y) = g(x)+g(y)$?Uniqueness of solution of functional equationUniqueness of solution for a functional equationWhat's the solution of the functional equation?What's the solution of the functional equationSolution of functional equationFunctional equation extended solutionUnderstanding of solution for a functional equation.Solution of particular functional equationExistence of solution for a functional equationfunctional equation in renormalization group theory

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Solution for a functional equation



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Is it possible to have $f(x)f(y) = g(x)+g(y)$?Uniqueness of solution of functional equationUniqueness of solution for a functional equationWhat's the solution of the functional equation?What's the solution of the functional equationSolution of functional equationFunctional equation extended solutionUnderstanding of solution for a functional equation.Solution of particular functional equationExistence of solution for a functional equationfunctional equation in renormalization group theory










1












$begingroup$


I'm searching for a solution to the following functional equation:



$$f(u)f(u+lambda)=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i)rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i)rho(u_i-u-lambda)$$



where $f$ is the unknown function, $rho(u)=sin(u-lambda)/sin(lambda)$, $lambda=pi/4$ and there are $L$ arbitrary real parameters $u_i_i=1^L$ where $L$ is an even number.



This equation comes from a $TQ$-equation for a solvable lattice model. If necessary, I can give more information but the equation itself is independent from its physical origin. I hope someone can help.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    I'm searching for a solution to the following functional equation:



    $$f(u)f(u+lambda)=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i)rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i)rho(u_i-u-lambda)$$



    where $f$ is the unknown function, $rho(u)=sin(u-lambda)/sin(lambda)$, $lambda=pi/4$ and there are $L$ arbitrary real parameters $u_i_i=1^L$ where $L$ is an even number.



    This equation comes from a $TQ$-equation for a solvable lattice model. If necessary, I can give more information but the equation itself is independent from its physical origin. I hope someone can help.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I'm searching for a solution to the following functional equation:



      $$f(u)f(u+lambda)=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i)rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i)rho(u_i-u-lambda)$$



      where $f$ is the unknown function, $rho(u)=sin(u-lambda)/sin(lambda)$, $lambda=pi/4$ and there are $L$ arbitrary real parameters $u_i_i=1^L$ where $L$ is an even number.



      This equation comes from a $TQ$-equation for a solvable lattice model. If necessary, I can give more information but the equation itself is independent from its physical origin. I hope someone can help.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I'm searching for a solution to the following functional equation:



      $$f(u)f(u+lambda)=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i)rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i)rho(u_i-u-lambda)$$



      where $f$ is the unknown function, $rho(u)=sin(u-lambda)/sin(lambda)$, $lambda=pi/4$ and there are $L$ arbitrary real parameters $u_i_i=1^L$ where $L$ is an even number.



      This equation comes from a $TQ$-equation for a solvable lattice model. If necessary, I can give more information but the equation itself is independent from its physical origin. I hope someone can help.







      analysis functional-equations






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 27 at 16:16









      TheoPhysicaeTheoPhysicae

      355




      355




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          This is not a complete solution, but just presenting a few ideas.



          Let's work on $rho$ first:
          beginalign*
          rho(u)&=fracsin(u-lambda)sin(lambda)\
          &=fracsin(u)cos(lambda)-cos(u)sin(lambda)sin(lambda)\
          &=sin(u)-cos(u),
          endalign*

          since $lambda=pi/4$ and $sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4).$



          Next, we look at what happens when we have $rho(u)cdotrho(-u).$ We have
          beginalign*
          rho(u)cdotrho(-u)&=[sin(u)-cos(u)][-sin(u)-cos(u)] \
          &=-sin^2(u)-sin(u)cos(u)+sin(u)cos(u)+cos^2(u)\
          &=cos^2(u)-sin^2(u)\
          &=cos(2u).
          endalign*



          From this, we gather that
          beginalign*f(u),f(u+lambda)&=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i),rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i),rho(u_i-u-lambda)\
          &=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u-lambda)) \
          &=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u)-pi/2),;textor \
          f(u),f(u+pi/4)&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u)).
          endalign*

          From this, we can at least see that if $u=u_i$ for any $1le ile L,$ then the second product drops out and you get
          $$f(u_i),f(u_i+pi/4)=prod_beginarraycj=1\ jnot=iendarray^Lcos(2(u_j-u)).$$
          Conversely, if $u_i-u=(2k+1)pi/4$ for some $kinmathbbZ,$ then the first product series drops out and you only get the second one.



          Finally, it's always worthwhile plugging in $u=0$ to arrive at
          $$f(0),f(pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2u_i)+prod_i=1^Lsin(2u_i).$$



          The RHS of
          $$f(u),f(u+pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u))$$
          is $pi$ periodic, and hence the LHS is as well.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
            $endgroup$
            – TheoPhysicae
            Mar 28 at 12:17










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
            $endgroup$
            – Adrian Keister
            Mar 28 at 14:52










          • $begingroup$
            Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
            $endgroup$
            – Adrian Keister
            Mar 28 at 15:04











          Your Answer








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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          This is not a complete solution, but just presenting a few ideas.



          Let's work on $rho$ first:
          beginalign*
          rho(u)&=fracsin(u-lambda)sin(lambda)\
          &=fracsin(u)cos(lambda)-cos(u)sin(lambda)sin(lambda)\
          &=sin(u)-cos(u),
          endalign*

          since $lambda=pi/4$ and $sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4).$



          Next, we look at what happens when we have $rho(u)cdotrho(-u).$ We have
          beginalign*
          rho(u)cdotrho(-u)&=[sin(u)-cos(u)][-sin(u)-cos(u)] \
          &=-sin^2(u)-sin(u)cos(u)+sin(u)cos(u)+cos^2(u)\
          &=cos^2(u)-sin^2(u)\
          &=cos(2u).
          endalign*



          From this, we gather that
          beginalign*f(u),f(u+lambda)&=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i),rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i),rho(u_i-u-lambda)\
          &=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u-lambda)) \
          &=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u)-pi/2),;textor \
          f(u),f(u+pi/4)&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u)).
          endalign*

          From this, we can at least see that if $u=u_i$ for any $1le ile L,$ then the second product drops out and you get
          $$f(u_i),f(u_i+pi/4)=prod_beginarraycj=1\ jnot=iendarray^Lcos(2(u_j-u)).$$
          Conversely, if $u_i-u=(2k+1)pi/4$ for some $kinmathbbZ,$ then the first product series drops out and you only get the second one.



          Finally, it's always worthwhile plugging in $u=0$ to arrive at
          $$f(0),f(pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2u_i)+prod_i=1^Lsin(2u_i).$$



          The RHS of
          $$f(u),f(u+pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u))$$
          is $pi$ periodic, and hence the LHS is as well.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
            $endgroup$
            – TheoPhysicae
            Mar 28 at 12:17










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
            $endgroup$
            – Adrian Keister
            Mar 28 at 14:52










          • $begingroup$
            Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
            $endgroup$
            – Adrian Keister
            Mar 28 at 15:04















          1












          $begingroup$

          This is not a complete solution, but just presenting a few ideas.



          Let's work on $rho$ first:
          beginalign*
          rho(u)&=fracsin(u-lambda)sin(lambda)\
          &=fracsin(u)cos(lambda)-cos(u)sin(lambda)sin(lambda)\
          &=sin(u)-cos(u),
          endalign*

          since $lambda=pi/4$ and $sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4).$



          Next, we look at what happens when we have $rho(u)cdotrho(-u).$ We have
          beginalign*
          rho(u)cdotrho(-u)&=[sin(u)-cos(u)][-sin(u)-cos(u)] \
          &=-sin^2(u)-sin(u)cos(u)+sin(u)cos(u)+cos^2(u)\
          &=cos^2(u)-sin^2(u)\
          &=cos(2u).
          endalign*



          From this, we gather that
          beginalign*f(u),f(u+lambda)&=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i),rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i),rho(u_i-u-lambda)\
          &=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u-lambda)) \
          &=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u)-pi/2),;textor \
          f(u),f(u+pi/4)&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u)).
          endalign*

          From this, we can at least see that if $u=u_i$ for any $1le ile L,$ then the second product drops out and you get
          $$f(u_i),f(u_i+pi/4)=prod_beginarraycj=1\ jnot=iendarray^Lcos(2(u_j-u)).$$
          Conversely, if $u_i-u=(2k+1)pi/4$ for some $kinmathbbZ,$ then the first product series drops out and you only get the second one.



          Finally, it's always worthwhile plugging in $u=0$ to arrive at
          $$f(0),f(pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2u_i)+prod_i=1^Lsin(2u_i).$$



          The RHS of
          $$f(u),f(u+pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u))$$
          is $pi$ periodic, and hence the LHS is as well.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
            $endgroup$
            – TheoPhysicae
            Mar 28 at 12:17










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
            $endgroup$
            – Adrian Keister
            Mar 28 at 14:52










          • $begingroup$
            Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
            $endgroup$
            – Adrian Keister
            Mar 28 at 15:04













          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          This is not a complete solution, but just presenting a few ideas.



          Let's work on $rho$ first:
          beginalign*
          rho(u)&=fracsin(u-lambda)sin(lambda)\
          &=fracsin(u)cos(lambda)-cos(u)sin(lambda)sin(lambda)\
          &=sin(u)-cos(u),
          endalign*

          since $lambda=pi/4$ and $sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4).$



          Next, we look at what happens when we have $rho(u)cdotrho(-u).$ We have
          beginalign*
          rho(u)cdotrho(-u)&=[sin(u)-cos(u)][-sin(u)-cos(u)] \
          &=-sin^2(u)-sin(u)cos(u)+sin(u)cos(u)+cos^2(u)\
          &=cos^2(u)-sin^2(u)\
          &=cos(2u).
          endalign*



          From this, we gather that
          beginalign*f(u),f(u+lambda)&=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i),rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i),rho(u_i-u-lambda)\
          &=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u-lambda)) \
          &=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u)-pi/2),;textor \
          f(u),f(u+pi/4)&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u)).
          endalign*

          From this, we can at least see that if $u=u_i$ for any $1le ile L,$ then the second product drops out and you get
          $$f(u_i),f(u_i+pi/4)=prod_beginarraycj=1\ jnot=iendarray^Lcos(2(u_j-u)).$$
          Conversely, if $u_i-u=(2k+1)pi/4$ for some $kinmathbbZ,$ then the first product series drops out and you only get the second one.



          Finally, it's always worthwhile plugging in $u=0$ to arrive at
          $$f(0),f(pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2u_i)+prod_i=1^Lsin(2u_i).$$



          The RHS of
          $$f(u),f(u+pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u))$$
          is $pi$ periodic, and hence the LHS is as well.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          This is not a complete solution, but just presenting a few ideas.



          Let's work on $rho$ first:
          beginalign*
          rho(u)&=fracsin(u-lambda)sin(lambda)\
          &=fracsin(u)cos(lambda)-cos(u)sin(lambda)sin(lambda)\
          &=sin(u)-cos(u),
          endalign*

          since $lambda=pi/4$ and $sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4).$



          Next, we look at what happens when we have $rho(u)cdotrho(-u).$ We have
          beginalign*
          rho(u)cdotrho(-u)&=[sin(u)-cos(u)][-sin(u)-cos(u)] \
          &=-sin^2(u)-sin(u)cos(u)+sin(u)cos(u)+cos^2(u)\
          &=cos^2(u)-sin^2(u)\
          &=cos(2u).
          endalign*



          From this, we gather that
          beginalign*f(u),f(u+lambda)&=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i),rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i),rho(u_i-u-lambda)\
          &=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u-lambda)) \
          &=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u)-pi/2),;textor \
          f(u),f(u+pi/4)&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u)).
          endalign*

          From this, we can at least see that if $u=u_i$ for any $1le ile L,$ then the second product drops out and you get
          $$f(u_i),f(u_i+pi/4)=prod_beginarraycj=1\ jnot=iendarray^Lcos(2(u_j-u)).$$
          Conversely, if $u_i-u=(2k+1)pi/4$ for some $kinmathbbZ,$ then the first product series drops out and you only get the second one.



          Finally, it's always worthwhile plugging in $u=0$ to arrive at
          $$f(0),f(pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2u_i)+prod_i=1^Lsin(2u_i).$$



          The RHS of
          $$f(u),f(u+pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u))$$
          is $pi$ periodic, and hence the LHS is as well.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 28 at 15:04

























          answered Mar 27 at 16:54









          Adrian KeisterAdrian Keister

          5,28272033




          5,28272033











          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
            $endgroup$
            – TheoPhysicae
            Mar 28 at 12:17










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
            $endgroup$
            – Adrian Keister
            Mar 28 at 14:52










          • $begingroup$
            Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
            $endgroup$
            – Adrian Keister
            Mar 28 at 15:04
















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
            $endgroup$
            – TheoPhysicae
            Mar 28 at 12:17










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
            $endgroup$
            – Adrian Keister
            Mar 28 at 14:52










          • $begingroup$
            Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
            $endgroup$
            – Adrian Keister
            Mar 28 at 15:04















          $begingroup$
          Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
          $endgroup$
          – TheoPhysicae
          Mar 28 at 12:17




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
          $endgroup$
          – TheoPhysicae
          Mar 28 at 12:17












          $begingroup$
          Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
          $endgroup$
          – Adrian Keister
          Mar 28 at 14:52




          $begingroup$
          Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
          $endgroup$
          – Adrian Keister
          Mar 28 at 14:52












          $begingroup$
          Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
          $endgroup$
          – Adrian Keister
          Mar 28 at 15:04




          $begingroup$
          Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
          $endgroup$
          – Adrian Keister
          Mar 28 at 15:04

















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