Solution for a functional equation Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Is it possible to have $f(x)f(y) = g(x)+g(y)$?Uniqueness of solution of functional equationUniqueness of solution for a functional equationWhat's the solution of the functional equation?What's the solution of the functional equationSolution of functional equationFunctional equation extended solutionUnderstanding of solution for a functional equation.Solution of particular functional equationExistence of solution for a functional equationfunctional equation in renormalization group theory
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Solution for a functional equation
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Is it possible to have $f(x)f(y) = g(x)+g(y)$?Uniqueness of solution of functional equationUniqueness of solution for a functional equationWhat's the solution of the functional equation?What's the solution of the functional equationSolution of functional equationFunctional equation extended solutionUnderstanding of solution for a functional equation.Solution of particular functional equationExistence of solution for a functional equationfunctional equation in renormalization group theory
$begingroup$
I'm searching for a solution to the following functional equation:
$$f(u)f(u+lambda)=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i)rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i)rho(u_i-u-lambda)$$
where $f$ is the unknown function, $rho(u)=sin(u-lambda)/sin(lambda)$, $lambda=pi/4$ and there are $L$ arbitrary real parameters $u_i_i=1^L$ where $L$ is an even number.
This equation comes from a $TQ$-equation for a solvable lattice model. If necessary, I can give more information but the equation itself is independent from its physical origin. I hope someone can help.
analysis functional-equations
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm searching for a solution to the following functional equation:
$$f(u)f(u+lambda)=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i)rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i)rho(u_i-u-lambda)$$
where $f$ is the unknown function, $rho(u)=sin(u-lambda)/sin(lambda)$, $lambda=pi/4$ and there are $L$ arbitrary real parameters $u_i_i=1^L$ where $L$ is an even number.
This equation comes from a $TQ$-equation for a solvable lattice model. If necessary, I can give more information but the equation itself is independent from its physical origin. I hope someone can help.
analysis functional-equations
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm searching for a solution to the following functional equation:
$$f(u)f(u+lambda)=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i)rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i)rho(u_i-u-lambda)$$
where $f$ is the unknown function, $rho(u)=sin(u-lambda)/sin(lambda)$, $lambda=pi/4$ and there are $L$ arbitrary real parameters $u_i_i=1^L$ where $L$ is an even number.
This equation comes from a $TQ$-equation for a solvable lattice model. If necessary, I can give more information but the equation itself is independent from its physical origin. I hope someone can help.
analysis functional-equations
$endgroup$
I'm searching for a solution to the following functional equation:
$$f(u)f(u+lambda)=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i)rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i)rho(u_i-u-lambda)$$
where $f$ is the unknown function, $rho(u)=sin(u-lambda)/sin(lambda)$, $lambda=pi/4$ and there are $L$ arbitrary real parameters $u_i_i=1^L$ where $L$ is an even number.
This equation comes from a $TQ$-equation for a solvable lattice model. If necessary, I can give more information but the equation itself is independent from its physical origin. I hope someone can help.
analysis functional-equations
analysis functional-equations
asked Mar 27 at 16:16
TheoPhysicaeTheoPhysicae
355
355
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
This is not a complete solution, but just presenting a few ideas.
Let's work on $rho$ first:
beginalign*
rho(u)&=fracsin(u-lambda)sin(lambda)\
&=fracsin(u)cos(lambda)-cos(u)sin(lambda)sin(lambda)\
&=sin(u)-cos(u),
endalign*
since $lambda=pi/4$ and $sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4).$
Next, we look at what happens when we have $rho(u)cdotrho(-u).$ We have
beginalign*
rho(u)cdotrho(-u)&=[sin(u)-cos(u)][-sin(u)-cos(u)] \
&=-sin^2(u)-sin(u)cos(u)+sin(u)cos(u)+cos^2(u)\
&=cos^2(u)-sin^2(u)\
&=cos(2u).
endalign*
From this, we gather that
beginalign*f(u),f(u+lambda)&=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i),rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i),rho(u_i-u-lambda)\
&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u-lambda)) \
&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u)-pi/2),;textor \
f(u),f(u+pi/4)&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u)).
endalign*
From this, we can at least see that if $u=u_i$ for any $1le ile L,$ then the second product drops out and you get
$$f(u_i),f(u_i+pi/4)=prod_beginarraycj=1\ jnot=iendarray^Lcos(2(u_j-u)).$$
Conversely, if $u_i-u=(2k+1)pi/4$ for some $kinmathbbZ,$ then the first product series drops out and you only get the second one.
Finally, it's always worthwhile plugging in $u=0$ to arrive at
$$f(0),f(pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2u_i)+prod_i=1^Lsin(2u_i).$$
The RHS of
$$f(u),f(u+pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u))$$
is $pi$ periodic, and hence the LHS is as well.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
$endgroup$
– TheoPhysicae
Mar 28 at 12:17
$begingroup$
Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 15:04
add a comment |
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1 Answer
1
active
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
This is not a complete solution, but just presenting a few ideas.
Let's work on $rho$ first:
beginalign*
rho(u)&=fracsin(u-lambda)sin(lambda)\
&=fracsin(u)cos(lambda)-cos(u)sin(lambda)sin(lambda)\
&=sin(u)-cos(u),
endalign*
since $lambda=pi/4$ and $sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4).$
Next, we look at what happens when we have $rho(u)cdotrho(-u).$ We have
beginalign*
rho(u)cdotrho(-u)&=[sin(u)-cos(u)][-sin(u)-cos(u)] \
&=-sin^2(u)-sin(u)cos(u)+sin(u)cos(u)+cos^2(u)\
&=cos^2(u)-sin^2(u)\
&=cos(2u).
endalign*
From this, we gather that
beginalign*f(u),f(u+lambda)&=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i),rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i),rho(u_i-u-lambda)\
&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u-lambda)) \
&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u)-pi/2),;textor \
f(u),f(u+pi/4)&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u)).
endalign*
From this, we can at least see that if $u=u_i$ for any $1le ile L,$ then the second product drops out and you get
$$f(u_i),f(u_i+pi/4)=prod_beginarraycj=1\ jnot=iendarray^Lcos(2(u_j-u)).$$
Conversely, if $u_i-u=(2k+1)pi/4$ for some $kinmathbbZ,$ then the first product series drops out and you only get the second one.
Finally, it's always worthwhile plugging in $u=0$ to arrive at
$$f(0),f(pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2u_i)+prod_i=1^Lsin(2u_i).$$
The RHS of
$$f(u),f(u+pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u))$$
is $pi$ periodic, and hence the LHS is as well.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
$endgroup$
– TheoPhysicae
Mar 28 at 12:17
$begingroup$
Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 15:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is not a complete solution, but just presenting a few ideas.
Let's work on $rho$ first:
beginalign*
rho(u)&=fracsin(u-lambda)sin(lambda)\
&=fracsin(u)cos(lambda)-cos(u)sin(lambda)sin(lambda)\
&=sin(u)-cos(u),
endalign*
since $lambda=pi/4$ and $sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4).$
Next, we look at what happens when we have $rho(u)cdotrho(-u).$ We have
beginalign*
rho(u)cdotrho(-u)&=[sin(u)-cos(u)][-sin(u)-cos(u)] \
&=-sin^2(u)-sin(u)cos(u)+sin(u)cos(u)+cos^2(u)\
&=cos^2(u)-sin^2(u)\
&=cos(2u).
endalign*
From this, we gather that
beginalign*f(u),f(u+lambda)&=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i),rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i),rho(u_i-u-lambda)\
&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u-lambda)) \
&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u)-pi/2),;textor \
f(u),f(u+pi/4)&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u)).
endalign*
From this, we can at least see that if $u=u_i$ for any $1le ile L,$ then the second product drops out and you get
$$f(u_i),f(u_i+pi/4)=prod_beginarraycj=1\ jnot=iendarray^Lcos(2(u_j-u)).$$
Conversely, if $u_i-u=(2k+1)pi/4$ for some $kinmathbbZ,$ then the first product series drops out and you only get the second one.
Finally, it's always worthwhile plugging in $u=0$ to arrive at
$$f(0),f(pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2u_i)+prod_i=1^Lsin(2u_i).$$
The RHS of
$$f(u),f(u+pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u))$$
is $pi$ periodic, and hence the LHS is as well.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
$endgroup$
– TheoPhysicae
Mar 28 at 12:17
$begingroup$
Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 15:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is not a complete solution, but just presenting a few ideas.
Let's work on $rho$ first:
beginalign*
rho(u)&=fracsin(u-lambda)sin(lambda)\
&=fracsin(u)cos(lambda)-cos(u)sin(lambda)sin(lambda)\
&=sin(u)-cos(u),
endalign*
since $lambda=pi/4$ and $sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4).$
Next, we look at what happens when we have $rho(u)cdotrho(-u).$ We have
beginalign*
rho(u)cdotrho(-u)&=[sin(u)-cos(u)][-sin(u)-cos(u)] \
&=-sin^2(u)-sin(u)cos(u)+sin(u)cos(u)+cos^2(u)\
&=cos^2(u)-sin^2(u)\
&=cos(2u).
endalign*
From this, we gather that
beginalign*f(u),f(u+lambda)&=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i),rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i),rho(u_i-u-lambda)\
&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u-lambda)) \
&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u)-pi/2),;textor \
f(u),f(u+pi/4)&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u)).
endalign*
From this, we can at least see that if $u=u_i$ for any $1le ile L,$ then the second product drops out and you get
$$f(u_i),f(u_i+pi/4)=prod_beginarraycj=1\ jnot=iendarray^Lcos(2(u_j-u)).$$
Conversely, if $u_i-u=(2k+1)pi/4$ for some $kinmathbbZ,$ then the first product series drops out and you only get the second one.
Finally, it's always worthwhile plugging in $u=0$ to arrive at
$$f(0),f(pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2u_i)+prod_i=1^Lsin(2u_i).$$
The RHS of
$$f(u),f(u+pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u))$$
is $pi$ periodic, and hence the LHS is as well.
$endgroup$
This is not a complete solution, but just presenting a few ideas.
Let's work on $rho$ first:
beginalign*
rho(u)&=fracsin(u-lambda)sin(lambda)\
&=fracsin(u)cos(lambda)-cos(u)sin(lambda)sin(lambda)\
&=sin(u)-cos(u),
endalign*
since $lambda=pi/4$ and $sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4).$
Next, we look at what happens when we have $rho(u)cdotrho(-u).$ We have
beginalign*
rho(u)cdotrho(-u)&=[sin(u)-cos(u)][-sin(u)-cos(u)] \
&=-sin^2(u)-sin(u)cos(u)+sin(u)cos(u)+cos^2(u)\
&=cos^2(u)-sin^2(u)\
&=cos(2u).
endalign*
From this, we gather that
beginalign*f(u),f(u+lambda)&=prod_i=1^Lrho(u-u_i),rho(u_i-u)+prod_i=1^Lrho(u+lambda-u_i),rho(u_i-u-lambda)\
&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u-lambda)) \
&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u)-pi/2),;textor \
f(u),f(u+pi/4)&=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u)).
endalign*
From this, we can at least see that if $u=u_i$ for any $1le ile L,$ then the second product drops out and you get
$$f(u_i),f(u_i+pi/4)=prod_beginarraycj=1\ jnot=iendarray^Lcos(2(u_j-u)).$$
Conversely, if $u_i-u=(2k+1)pi/4$ for some $kinmathbbZ,$ then the first product series drops out and you only get the second one.
Finally, it's always worthwhile plugging in $u=0$ to arrive at
$$f(0),f(pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2u_i)+prod_i=1^Lsin(2u_i).$$
The RHS of
$$f(u),f(u+pi/4)=prod_i=1^Lcos(2(u_i-u))+prod_i=1^Lsin(2(u_i-u))$$
is $pi$ periodic, and hence the LHS is as well.
edited Mar 28 at 15:04
answered Mar 27 at 16:54
Adrian KeisterAdrian Keister
5,28272033
5,28272033
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
$endgroup$
– TheoPhysicae
Mar 28 at 12:17
$begingroup$
Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 15:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
$endgroup$
– TheoPhysicae
Mar 28 at 12:17
$begingroup$
Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 15:04
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
$endgroup$
– TheoPhysicae
Mar 28 at 12:17
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. Maybe I should have added some more information. I know in addition, that $f(u)$ is a Laurant-Polynomial of degree $L$ in $z=e^i u$. This can be used to get quadratic equations for the coefficients by evaluation the equation at $u_i$ as you mentioned. This is however not efficient when $L$ becomes large and I was hoping to find something like a closed form, non-linear integral equation or anything else which is fast also for large $L$.
$endgroup$
– TheoPhysicae
Mar 28 at 12:17
$begingroup$
Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Hmm. Well, the RHS of my general simplification there is $pi$ periodic, and therefore the LHS must be $pi$ periodic, so $z=e^iu$ would make sense. I'm not sure I know how to proceed further, though. If you differentiated both sides w.r.t. $u,$ the RHS would be the negative of what you started out as. That might allow you to continue. I'll try to add that to my solution.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 14:52
$begingroup$
Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 15:04
$begingroup$
Actually, differentiating the RHS is more complicated than I made out, so that's not going to give you a nice DE.
$endgroup$
– Adrian Keister
Mar 28 at 15:04
add a comment |
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