can a Linear operator on infinite dimensional vector space have infinite eigenvalues?Diagonalisable linear operator on infinite-dimensional vector space: definition problemEigenvalues of linear operator TS and ST for infinite dimensional spaceDoes there exist an infinite dimensional vector space over an infinite ordered field which cannot have any inner-product imposed on it?Subspaces of an infinite dimensional vector spaceInfinite Dimensional Vector SpacesEigenvalues of an infinite dimensional linear operatorCan an operator $T$ in a countable infinite-dimension vector space have uncountable many eigenvalues?A linear operator T from an infinite dimensional complex vector space X to X which has no any eigenvalues.Invertibility of linear operators on infinite dimensional vector spaceInfinite Dimensional Vector Space linear operator

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can a Linear operator on infinite dimensional vector space have infinite eigenvalues?


Diagonalisable linear operator on infinite-dimensional vector space: definition problemEigenvalues of linear operator TS and ST for infinite dimensional spaceDoes there exist an infinite dimensional vector space over an infinite ordered field which cannot have any inner-product imposed on it?Subspaces of an infinite dimensional vector spaceInfinite Dimensional Vector SpacesEigenvalues of an infinite dimensional linear operatorCan an operator $T$ in a countable infinite-dimension vector space have uncountable many eigenvalues?A linear operator T from an infinite dimensional complex vector space X to X which has no any eigenvalues.Invertibility of linear operators on infinite dimensional vector spaceInfinite Dimensional Vector Space linear operator













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I know that for a finite dimensional vector space, the number of eigenvalues is at most the dimension of the vector space. Is there an example of an infinite dimensional vector space and a linear operator such that the linear operator allows infinite eigenvalues? I cannot think of such an example, but I was wondering if it is possible to construct one since I was also unable to prove why the number of eigenvalues would necessarily be finite in such a case.










share|cite|improve this question









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    1












    $begingroup$


    I know that for a finite dimensional vector space, the number of eigenvalues is at most the dimension of the vector space. Is there an example of an infinite dimensional vector space and a linear operator such that the linear operator allows infinite eigenvalues? I cannot think of such an example, but I was wondering if it is possible to construct one since I was also unable to prove why the number of eigenvalues would necessarily be finite in such a case.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      I know that for a finite dimensional vector space, the number of eigenvalues is at most the dimension of the vector space. Is there an example of an infinite dimensional vector space and a linear operator such that the linear operator allows infinite eigenvalues? I cannot think of such an example, but I was wondering if it is possible to construct one since I was also unable to prove why the number of eigenvalues would necessarily be finite in such a case.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I know that for a finite dimensional vector space, the number of eigenvalues is at most the dimension of the vector space. Is there an example of an infinite dimensional vector space and a linear operator such that the linear operator allows infinite eigenvalues? I cannot think of such an example, but I was wondering if it is possible to construct one since I was also unable to prove why the number of eigenvalues would necessarily be finite in such a case.







      linear-algebra vector-spaces eigenvalues-eigenvectors






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 22 at 14:48









      mmmmommmmo

      1347




      1347




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          Of course there is, as a linear map is given by the images of a basis.

          So, let $(B_i mid i in mathbbN)$ be a basis of an infinite dimensional $mathbbR$-vector space $V$. Define a map $f : V to V$ by putting $f(B_i) = icdot B_i$ and you have infinitely many eigenvalues.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I quite like this example, elegant and quite obvious
            $endgroup$
            – mmmmo
            Mar 22 at 15:08


















          2












          $begingroup$

          In $ell^2$, let$$A(x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4,ldots)=left(x_1,fracx_22,fracx_33,ldotsright).$$Then, for each $ninmathbb N$, $frac1n$ is an eigenvalue of $A$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            2












            $begingroup$

            Another example from a different area just for the sake of building intuition. If you let $C^1(mathbbR)$ be the vector space of continuously differentiable functions $f:mathbbR to mathbbR$, and let $L$ be the derivative operator, mapping $L(f) = f'$, then the eigenvalues of $L$ satisfy
            $$
            kf = L(f) = f',
            $$

            in other words any real $k$ is an eigenvalue with the eigenvector
            $$
            f(x) = e^kx.
            $$



            So here is an example with not just infinite, but uncountable eigenvectors/eigenvalues.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

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              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

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              3












              $begingroup$

              Of course there is, as a linear map is given by the images of a basis.

              So, let $(B_i mid i in mathbbN)$ be a basis of an infinite dimensional $mathbbR$-vector space $V$. Define a map $f : V to V$ by putting $f(B_i) = icdot B_i$ and you have infinitely many eigenvalues.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                I quite like this example, elegant and quite obvious
                $endgroup$
                – mmmmo
                Mar 22 at 15:08















              3












              $begingroup$

              Of course there is, as a linear map is given by the images of a basis.

              So, let $(B_i mid i in mathbbN)$ be a basis of an infinite dimensional $mathbbR$-vector space $V$. Define a map $f : V to V$ by putting $f(B_i) = icdot B_i$ and you have infinitely many eigenvalues.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                I quite like this example, elegant and quite obvious
                $endgroup$
                – mmmmo
                Mar 22 at 15:08













              3












              3








              3





              $begingroup$

              Of course there is, as a linear map is given by the images of a basis.

              So, let $(B_i mid i in mathbbN)$ be a basis of an infinite dimensional $mathbbR$-vector space $V$. Define a map $f : V to V$ by putting $f(B_i) = icdot B_i$ and you have infinitely many eigenvalues.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              Of course there is, as a linear map is given by the images of a basis.

              So, let $(B_i mid i in mathbbN)$ be a basis of an infinite dimensional $mathbbR$-vector space $V$. Define a map $f : V to V$ by putting $f(B_i) = icdot B_i$ and you have infinitely many eigenvalues.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Mar 22 at 14:53









              DirkDirk

              4,533219




              4,533219











              • $begingroup$
                I quite like this example, elegant and quite obvious
                $endgroup$
                – mmmmo
                Mar 22 at 15:08
















              • $begingroup$
                I quite like this example, elegant and quite obvious
                $endgroup$
                – mmmmo
                Mar 22 at 15:08















              $begingroup$
              I quite like this example, elegant and quite obvious
              $endgroup$
              – mmmmo
              Mar 22 at 15:08




              $begingroup$
              I quite like this example, elegant and quite obvious
              $endgroup$
              – mmmmo
              Mar 22 at 15:08











              2












              $begingroup$

              In $ell^2$, let$$A(x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4,ldots)=left(x_1,fracx_22,fracx_33,ldotsright).$$Then, for each $ninmathbb N$, $frac1n$ is an eigenvalue of $A$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                2












                $begingroup$

                In $ell^2$, let$$A(x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4,ldots)=left(x_1,fracx_22,fracx_33,ldotsright).$$Then, for each $ninmathbb N$, $frac1n$ is an eigenvalue of $A$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  In $ell^2$, let$$A(x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4,ldots)=left(x_1,fracx_22,fracx_33,ldotsright).$$Then, for each $ninmathbb N$, $frac1n$ is an eigenvalue of $A$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  In $ell^2$, let$$A(x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4,ldots)=left(x_1,fracx_22,fracx_33,ldotsright).$$Then, for each $ninmathbb N$, $frac1n$ is an eigenvalue of $A$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 22 at 14:52









                  José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

                  173k23133241




                  173k23133241





















                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      Another example from a different area just for the sake of building intuition. If you let $C^1(mathbbR)$ be the vector space of continuously differentiable functions $f:mathbbR to mathbbR$, and let $L$ be the derivative operator, mapping $L(f) = f'$, then the eigenvalues of $L$ satisfy
                      $$
                      kf = L(f) = f',
                      $$

                      in other words any real $k$ is an eigenvalue with the eigenvector
                      $$
                      f(x) = e^kx.
                      $$



                      So here is an example with not just infinite, but uncountable eigenvectors/eigenvalues.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        Another example from a different area just for the sake of building intuition. If you let $C^1(mathbbR)$ be the vector space of continuously differentiable functions $f:mathbbR to mathbbR$, and let $L$ be the derivative operator, mapping $L(f) = f'$, then the eigenvalues of $L$ satisfy
                        $$
                        kf = L(f) = f',
                        $$

                        in other words any real $k$ is an eigenvalue with the eigenvector
                        $$
                        f(x) = e^kx.
                        $$



                        So here is an example with not just infinite, but uncountable eigenvectors/eigenvalues.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          2












                          2








                          2





                          $begingroup$

                          Another example from a different area just for the sake of building intuition. If you let $C^1(mathbbR)$ be the vector space of continuously differentiable functions $f:mathbbR to mathbbR$, and let $L$ be the derivative operator, mapping $L(f) = f'$, then the eigenvalues of $L$ satisfy
                          $$
                          kf = L(f) = f',
                          $$

                          in other words any real $k$ is an eigenvalue with the eigenvector
                          $$
                          f(x) = e^kx.
                          $$



                          So here is an example with not just infinite, but uncountable eigenvectors/eigenvalues.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Another example from a different area just for the sake of building intuition. If you let $C^1(mathbbR)$ be the vector space of continuously differentiable functions $f:mathbbR to mathbbR$, and let $L$ be the derivative operator, mapping $L(f) = f'$, then the eigenvalues of $L$ satisfy
                          $$
                          kf = L(f) = f',
                          $$

                          in other words any real $k$ is an eigenvalue with the eigenvector
                          $$
                          f(x) = e^kx.
                          $$



                          So here is an example with not just infinite, but uncountable eigenvectors/eigenvalues.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Mar 22 at 15:06









                          gt6989bgt6989b

                          35.6k22557




                          35.6k22557



























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