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Kalman filter: the bayesian approach derivation some clarifications



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowHow to solve the recursive relation in Kalman filter?How to estimate variances for Kalman filter from real sensor measurements without underestimating process noise.Conditional distributionHow to handle the noise covariance matrices in a basic Kalman Filter setup?Kalman Filter to improve sensor reading without predictionWhen can I be sure that the state values estimated from the Kalman Filter have approached the actual values? Is it from the state co-variance matrix?Do I understand these expressions correctly (Kalman filter)?covariance of a Markov chain derivation (Kalman filter)Continuous Kalman Filter optimizationDerivation of Kalman Gain for the Unscented Kalman Filter (UKF)










1












$begingroup$


I'm reading the book Methods and algorithms for signal processing from Moon Stirling at page 592 there is a derivation of Kalman filter using the Bayesian approach. I have some issues in understanding the propagate step which is the following:
$ p(textbfx_k|textbfz_1:k-1) = inttextbfx_k-1)p(textbfx_k-1$.
The book says under some assumption:
$ x_k-1 | z_1:k-1 sim mathcalN(m_k-1), P_k-1)$ and
$x_k|x_k-1 sim mathcalN(F_k x_k-1, Q_k)$
And inserting these in the prediction step and performing the integration (which involves expanding and completing the square) we find that $x_k$ is a Gaussian with mean $F_k m_k-1$ and variance $F_k P_k F_k ^T + Q_k$.
I don't understand when I insert that two gaussian in prediction formula how is possible to get that mean and that variance, there we have the product of two gaussian distribution but with different random variables maybe that's a gaussian? but then we have an integral of the resulting distribution. Can someone clarify me this?
Thank you










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    I'm reading the book Methods and algorithms for signal processing from Moon Stirling at page 592 there is a derivation of Kalman filter using the Bayesian approach. I have some issues in understanding the propagate step which is the following:
    $ p(textbfx_k|textbfz_1:k-1) = inttextbfx_k-1)p(textbfx_k-1$.
    The book says under some assumption:
    $ x_k-1 | z_1:k-1 sim mathcalN(m_k-1), P_k-1)$ and
    $x_k|x_k-1 sim mathcalN(F_k x_k-1, Q_k)$
    And inserting these in the prediction step and performing the integration (which involves expanding and completing the square) we find that $x_k$ is a Gaussian with mean $F_k m_k-1$ and variance $F_k P_k F_k ^T + Q_k$.
    I don't understand when I insert that two gaussian in prediction formula how is possible to get that mean and that variance, there we have the product of two gaussian distribution but with different random variables maybe that's a gaussian? but then we have an integral of the resulting distribution. Can someone clarify me this?
    Thank you










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I'm reading the book Methods and algorithms for signal processing from Moon Stirling at page 592 there is a derivation of Kalman filter using the Bayesian approach. I have some issues in understanding the propagate step which is the following:
      $ p(textbfx_k|textbfz_1:k-1) = inttextbfx_k-1)p(textbfx_k-1$.
      The book says under some assumption:
      $ x_k-1 | z_1:k-1 sim mathcalN(m_k-1), P_k-1)$ and
      $x_k|x_k-1 sim mathcalN(F_k x_k-1, Q_k)$
      And inserting these in the prediction step and performing the integration (which involves expanding and completing the square) we find that $x_k$ is a Gaussian with mean $F_k m_k-1$ and variance $F_k P_k F_k ^T + Q_k$.
      I don't understand when I insert that two gaussian in prediction formula how is possible to get that mean and that variance, there we have the product of two gaussian distribution but with different random variables maybe that's a gaussian? but then we have an integral of the resulting distribution. Can someone clarify me this?
      Thank you










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I'm reading the book Methods and algorithms for signal processing from Moon Stirling at page 592 there is a derivation of Kalman filter using the Bayesian approach. I have some issues in understanding the propagate step which is the following:
      $ p(textbfx_k|textbfz_1:k-1) = inttextbfx_k-1)p(textbfx_k-1$.
      The book says under some assumption:
      $ x_k-1 | z_1:k-1 sim mathcalN(m_k-1), P_k-1)$ and
      $x_k|x_k-1 sim mathcalN(F_k x_k-1, Q_k)$
      And inserting these in the prediction step and performing the integration (which involves expanding and completing the square) we find that $x_k$ is a Gaussian with mean $F_k m_k-1$ and variance $F_k P_k F_k ^T + Q_k$.
      I don't understand when I insert that two gaussian in prediction formula how is possible to get that mean and that variance, there we have the product of two gaussian distribution but with different random variables maybe that's a gaussian? but then we have an integral of the resulting distribution. Can someone clarify me this?
      Thank you







      gaussian-integral kalman-filter






      share|cite|improve this question













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      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 18 at 11:09









      Francesco FisherFrancesco Fisher

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