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Abel-Dini-Type Theorem for convergent series


Contest problem about convergent seriesA generalization of Cauchy's condensation testA convergent series propertyConvergence of the series $sumlimits_ne^-a_n$Improving a proof for a basic property of convergent seriesConvergent series with conditionSize of a convergent series restricted to primesCan the speed of divergence/convergence of a series be controlled arbitrarily?Limit of the series $lim_nrightarrow inftyfrac1s_nsum_k=1^na_kx_k$Absolutely convergent series of complex functions.













2












$begingroup$


Given are a continuous, strictly increasing and convex function $varphi:[0,infty)to[0,infty)$ and a sequence $(x_j)$ of positive real numbers such that
beginalign*
sum_j=1^inftyvarphi(x_j)
endalign*

converges.




Question: Can we always find a sequence $(lambda _j)$ of positive real numbers which decreases to 0 and so that
beginalign*
sum_j=1^inftyvarphi(x_j/lambda_j)
endalign*

still converges?




This is true for linear $varphi$ by the Abel-Dini-Theorem, and in this case one can take $lambda_j=sqrtx_j+1+x_j+2+ldots$. But what about the general case? Any help is highly appreciated. Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    Given are a continuous, strictly increasing and convex function $varphi:[0,infty)to[0,infty)$ and a sequence $(x_j)$ of positive real numbers such that
    beginalign*
    sum_j=1^inftyvarphi(x_j)
    endalign*

    converges.




    Question: Can we always find a sequence $(lambda _j)$ of positive real numbers which decreases to 0 and so that
    beginalign*
    sum_j=1^inftyvarphi(x_j/lambda_j)
    endalign*

    still converges?




    This is true for linear $varphi$ by the Abel-Dini-Theorem, and in this case one can take $lambda_j=sqrtx_j+1+x_j+2+ldots$. But what about the general case? Any help is highly appreciated. Thanks in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Given are a continuous, strictly increasing and convex function $varphi:[0,infty)to[0,infty)$ and a sequence $(x_j)$ of positive real numbers such that
      beginalign*
      sum_j=1^inftyvarphi(x_j)
      endalign*

      converges.




      Question: Can we always find a sequence $(lambda _j)$ of positive real numbers which decreases to 0 and so that
      beginalign*
      sum_j=1^inftyvarphi(x_j/lambda_j)
      endalign*

      still converges?




      This is true for linear $varphi$ by the Abel-Dini-Theorem, and in this case one can take $lambda_j=sqrtx_j+1+x_j+2+ldots$. But what about the general case? Any help is highly appreciated. Thanks in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Given are a continuous, strictly increasing and convex function $varphi:[0,infty)to[0,infty)$ and a sequence $(x_j)$ of positive real numbers such that
      beginalign*
      sum_j=1^inftyvarphi(x_j)
      endalign*

      converges.




      Question: Can we always find a sequence $(lambda _j)$ of positive real numbers which decreases to 0 and so that
      beginalign*
      sum_j=1^inftyvarphi(x_j/lambda_j)
      endalign*

      still converges?




      This is true for linear $varphi$ by the Abel-Dini-Theorem, and in this case one can take $lambda_j=sqrtx_j+1+x_j+2+ldots$. But what about the general case? Any help is highly appreciated. Thanks in advance!







      sequences-and-series convergence






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 14 at 16:28









      sranthropsranthrop

      7,1111925




      7,1111925




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          No - here is a counterexample. Define



          $$phi(x)=begincases
          0&x=0\
          exp(-1/x)&0<xleq 1/2\
          exp(-2)+4exp(-2)(x-tfrac12)&xgeq 1/2.
          endcases$$



          For $0<x<1/2$ we have $phi'(x)=x^-2exp(-1/x)$ and $phi''(x)=(x^-4-2x^-3)exp(-1/x)>0$ which ensures that $phi$ is continuous, strictly increasing and convex.



          For $0<lambdaleq 1$ and $0<y^lambda<exp(-2)$ we have



          $$phi(tfrac1lambda phi^-1(x))=phi(-1/lambdalog(y))=y^lambda.$$



          For an extreme example take $x_j=phi^-1(1/j(log j)^2)$ for $jgeq 10$ (and $x_1,dots,x_9=1$ say). Then



          $$sum_j=10^infty phi(x_j/lambda)=sum_j=10^infty frac1j^lambda(log j)^2lambda$$



          which converges for $lambda=1$ but not for any $lambda<1.$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Great, thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – sranthrop
            Mar 14 at 19:15










          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
          1






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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          No - here is a counterexample. Define



          $$phi(x)=begincases
          0&x=0\
          exp(-1/x)&0<xleq 1/2\
          exp(-2)+4exp(-2)(x-tfrac12)&xgeq 1/2.
          endcases$$



          For $0<x<1/2$ we have $phi'(x)=x^-2exp(-1/x)$ and $phi''(x)=(x^-4-2x^-3)exp(-1/x)>0$ which ensures that $phi$ is continuous, strictly increasing and convex.



          For $0<lambdaleq 1$ and $0<y^lambda<exp(-2)$ we have



          $$phi(tfrac1lambda phi^-1(x))=phi(-1/lambdalog(y))=y^lambda.$$



          For an extreme example take $x_j=phi^-1(1/j(log j)^2)$ for $jgeq 10$ (and $x_1,dots,x_9=1$ say). Then



          $$sum_j=10^infty phi(x_j/lambda)=sum_j=10^infty frac1j^lambda(log j)^2lambda$$



          which converges for $lambda=1$ but not for any $lambda<1.$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Great, thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – sranthrop
            Mar 14 at 19:15















          1












          $begingroup$

          No - here is a counterexample. Define



          $$phi(x)=begincases
          0&x=0\
          exp(-1/x)&0<xleq 1/2\
          exp(-2)+4exp(-2)(x-tfrac12)&xgeq 1/2.
          endcases$$



          For $0<x<1/2$ we have $phi'(x)=x^-2exp(-1/x)$ and $phi''(x)=(x^-4-2x^-3)exp(-1/x)>0$ which ensures that $phi$ is continuous, strictly increasing and convex.



          For $0<lambdaleq 1$ and $0<y^lambda<exp(-2)$ we have



          $$phi(tfrac1lambda phi^-1(x))=phi(-1/lambdalog(y))=y^lambda.$$



          For an extreme example take $x_j=phi^-1(1/j(log j)^2)$ for $jgeq 10$ (and $x_1,dots,x_9=1$ say). Then



          $$sum_j=10^infty phi(x_j/lambda)=sum_j=10^infty frac1j^lambda(log j)^2lambda$$



          which converges for $lambda=1$ but not for any $lambda<1.$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Great, thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – sranthrop
            Mar 14 at 19:15













          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          No - here is a counterexample. Define



          $$phi(x)=begincases
          0&x=0\
          exp(-1/x)&0<xleq 1/2\
          exp(-2)+4exp(-2)(x-tfrac12)&xgeq 1/2.
          endcases$$



          For $0<x<1/2$ we have $phi'(x)=x^-2exp(-1/x)$ and $phi''(x)=(x^-4-2x^-3)exp(-1/x)>0$ which ensures that $phi$ is continuous, strictly increasing and convex.



          For $0<lambdaleq 1$ and $0<y^lambda<exp(-2)$ we have



          $$phi(tfrac1lambda phi^-1(x))=phi(-1/lambdalog(y))=y^lambda.$$



          For an extreme example take $x_j=phi^-1(1/j(log j)^2)$ for $jgeq 10$ (and $x_1,dots,x_9=1$ say). Then



          $$sum_j=10^infty phi(x_j/lambda)=sum_j=10^infty frac1j^lambda(log j)^2lambda$$



          which converges for $lambda=1$ but not for any $lambda<1.$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          No - here is a counterexample. Define



          $$phi(x)=begincases
          0&x=0\
          exp(-1/x)&0<xleq 1/2\
          exp(-2)+4exp(-2)(x-tfrac12)&xgeq 1/2.
          endcases$$



          For $0<x<1/2$ we have $phi'(x)=x^-2exp(-1/x)$ and $phi''(x)=(x^-4-2x^-3)exp(-1/x)>0$ which ensures that $phi$ is continuous, strictly increasing and convex.



          For $0<lambdaleq 1$ and $0<y^lambda<exp(-2)$ we have



          $$phi(tfrac1lambda phi^-1(x))=phi(-1/lambdalog(y))=y^lambda.$$



          For an extreme example take $x_j=phi^-1(1/j(log j)^2)$ for $jgeq 10$ (and $x_1,dots,x_9=1$ say). Then



          $$sum_j=10^infty phi(x_j/lambda)=sum_j=10^infty frac1j^lambda(log j)^2lambda$$



          which converges for $lambda=1$ but not for any $lambda<1.$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 14 at 18:30









          DapDap

          18.9k842




          18.9k842











          • $begingroup$
            Great, thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – sranthrop
            Mar 14 at 19:15
















          • $begingroup$
            Great, thank you!
            $endgroup$
            – sranthrop
            Mar 14 at 19:15















          $begingroup$
          Great, thank you!
          $endgroup$
          – sranthrop
          Mar 14 at 19:15




          $begingroup$
          Great, thank you!
          $endgroup$
          – sranthrop
          Mar 14 at 19:15

















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