What does it mean : the finite dimensional distribution determine the random process?Does the distribution of a process on $mathbbR^[0,infty)$ uniquely define it?definition of stochastic process on countable spaceEqual distribution only for finite dimensional distributionsRecurrence of random walks in terms of the mean of each step.Finite dimensional distribution of a stochastic processDoes a Levy process have the property $mathbbE_x(X_t|mathcalG)=mathbbE(X_t+x|mathcalG)$?For a given sequence of random variables $R_n$, what does the stochastic order relations $o_p(R_n)$ and $O_p(R_n)$ mean intuitively?Pointwise convergence in limit of conditional probabilities implies almost sure convergence?What does the weak convergence of stochastic intensity tell us about the point process?Definition of a Markov process: What does $mathbb P_xX_uin Bmid mathcal F_t=p(u-t,X_t,Gamma)$ mean?

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What does it mean : the finite dimensional distribution determine the random process?


Does the distribution of a process on $mathbbR^[0,infty)$ uniquely define it?definition of stochastic process on countable spaceEqual distribution only for finite dimensional distributionsRecurrence of random walks in terms of the mean of each step.Finite dimensional distribution of a stochastic processDoes a Levy process have the property $mathbbE_x(X_t|mathcalG)=mathbbE(X_t+x|mathcalG)$?For a given sequence of random variables $R_n$, what does the stochastic order relations $o_p(R_n)$ and $O_p(R_n)$ mean intuitively?Pointwise convergence in limit of conditional probabilities implies almost sure convergence?What does the weak convergence of stochastic intensity tell us about the point process?Definition of a Markov process: What does $mathbb P_xX_uin Bmid mathcal F_t=p(u-t,X_t,Gamma)$ mean?













2












$begingroup$


In the book Random perturbation of dynamical system of Fredlin and Wantzell (2nd edition) page 17, it's written :



Let $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ a probability space and $(xi_t)_tin T$ a stochastic process with state space $(X,mathcal B )$. If $T$ is countable, then the finite dimensional distributions determine the random process to the degree of uniqueness usual in probability. If $T$ is an interval, we can have two process (one continuous and ond discontinuous) with the same finite dimensional distribution.




I'm not sure if I completly understand this... does it mean (in the countable case), that if for all $Bin mathcal B$, $$mathbb PX_nin B=mathbb PY_nin B$$
for all $ninmathbb N$, then $X_n=Y_n$ a.s. ?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Pierre is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    In the book Random perturbation of dynamical system of Fredlin and Wantzell (2nd edition) page 17, it's written :



    Let $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ a probability space and $(xi_t)_tin T$ a stochastic process with state space $(X,mathcal B )$. If $T$ is countable, then the finite dimensional distributions determine the random process to the degree of uniqueness usual in probability. If $T$ is an interval, we can have two process (one continuous and ond discontinuous) with the same finite dimensional distribution.




    I'm not sure if I completly understand this... does it mean (in the countable case), that if for all $Bin mathcal B$, $$mathbb PX_nin B=mathbb PY_nin B$$
    for all $ninmathbb N$, then $X_n=Y_n$ a.s. ?










    share|cite|improve this question









    New contributor




    Pierre is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.







    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      In the book Random perturbation of dynamical system of Fredlin and Wantzell (2nd edition) page 17, it's written :



      Let $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ a probability space and $(xi_t)_tin T$ a stochastic process with state space $(X,mathcal B )$. If $T$ is countable, then the finite dimensional distributions determine the random process to the degree of uniqueness usual in probability. If $T$ is an interval, we can have two process (one continuous and ond discontinuous) with the same finite dimensional distribution.




      I'm not sure if I completly understand this... does it mean (in the countable case), that if for all $Bin mathcal B$, $$mathbb PX_nin B=mathbb PY_nin B$$
      for all $ninmathbb N$, then $X_n=Y_n$ a.s. ?










      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Pierre is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.







      $endgroup$




      In the book Random perturbation of dynamical system of Fredlin and Wantzell (2nd edition) page 17, it's written :



      Let $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ a probability space and $(xi_t)_tin T$ a stochastic process with state space $(X,mathcal B )$. If $T$ is countable, then the finite dimensional distributions determine the random process to the degree of uniqueness usual in probability. If $T$ is an interval, we can have two process (one continuous and ond discontinuous) with the same finite dimensional distribution.




      I'm not sure if I completly understand this... does it mean (in the countable case), that if for all $Bin mathcal B$, $$mathbb PX_nin B=mathbb PY_nin B$$
      for all $ninmathbb N$, then $X_n=Y_n$ a.s. ?







      probability






      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Pierre is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Pierre is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 12 at 10:32







      Pierre













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      Pierre is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      asked Mar 12 at 10:04









      PierrePierre

      5610




      5610




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      New contributor





      Pierre is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          No.



          It means that if two stochastic processes $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ are such that
          $$
          forall t_1,cdots,t_nin T,forall A_1,cdots,A_ninmathcal B,mathbb P(xi^1_t_1in A_1,cdots,xi^1_t_nin A_n)=mathbb P(xi^2_t_1in A_1,cdots,xi^2_t_nin A_n),
          $$

          then $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have the same distribution, that is to say
          $$
          forall Ainmathcal B^otimes T,mathbb P((xi^1_t)_tinmathbb Rin A)=mathbb P((xi^2_t)_tinmathbb Rin A).
          $$



          The short way of saying this is that if two processes $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have the same finite dimensional distributions, then they have the same distribution. In the general case, you cannot deduce the almost sure equality between the two processes.



          Let us now illustrate the last sentence. Let $T=[0,1]$, $U$ be a random variable uniformly distributed on $[0,1]$ and $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ be defined for all $tin T$ by $xi^1_t=0$ and $xi^2_t=1_U=t$ (that is $1$ if $U=t$ and $0$ otherwise). Then for all $tin [0,T]$, $xi^1_t=xi^2_t$ a.s. (since $mathbb P(U=t)=0$) so we easily deduce that $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have equal finite dimensional distributions and therefore equal distributions. However, $xi^1$ is clearly continuous and $xi^2$ discontinuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Will is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer, but my question was rather for $T=mathbb N$ (or $1,...,n$). The statement looks stronger. (I know that for the case $T=[0,1]$ is not true that the process are a.s. equal when they have same distribution)
            $endgroup$
            – Pierre
            Mar 12 at 11:33











          • $begingroup$
            Everything I said (except the last paragraph of course) is valid for $T$ countable. If $T=mathbb N$ or $1,cdots,n$ you can deduce the equality of the distributions but not the equality a.s.
            $endgroup$
            – Will
            Mar 12 at 12:08










          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

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          1












          $begingroup$

          No.



          It means that if two stochastic processes $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ are such that
          $$
          forall t_1,cdots,t_nin T,forall A_1,cdots,A_ninmathcal B,mathbb P(xi^1_t_1in A_1,cdots,xi^1_t_nin A_n)=mathbb P(xi^2_t_1in A_1,cdots,xi^2_t_nin A_n),
          $$

          then $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have the same distribution, that is to say
          $$
          forall Ainmathcal B^otimes T,mathbb P((xi^1_t)_tinmathbb Rin A)=mathbb P((xi^2_t)_tinmathbb Rin A).
          $$



          The short way of saying this is that if two processes $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have the same finite dimensional distributions, then they have the same distribution. In the general case, you cannot deduce the almost sure equality between the two processes.



          Let us now illustrate the last sentence. Let $T=[0,1]$, $U$ be a random variable uniformly distributed on $[0,1]$ and $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ be defined for all $tin T$ by $xi^1_t=0$ and $xi^2_t=1_U=t$ (that is $1$ if $U=t$ and $0$ otherwise). Then for all $tin [0,T]$, $xi^1_t=xi^2_t$ a.s. (since $mathbb P(U=t)=0$) so we easily deduce that $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have equal finite dimensional distributions and therefore equal distributions. However, $xi^1$ is clearly continuous and $xi^2$ discontinuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Will is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer, but my question was rather for $T=mathbb N$ (or $1,...,n$). The statement looks stronger. (I know that for the case $T=[0,1]$ is not true that the process are a.s. equal when they have same distribution)
            $endgroup$
            – Pierre
            Mar 12 at 11:33











          • $begingroup$
            Everything I said (except the last paragraph of course) is valid for $T$ countable. If $T=mathbb N$ or $1,cdots,n$ you can deduce the equality of the distributions but not the equality a.s.
            $endgroup$
            – Will
            Mar 12 at 12:08















          1












          $begingroup$

          No.



          It means that if two stochastic processes $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ are such that
          $$
          forall t_1,cdots,t_nin T,forall A_1,cdots,A_ninmathcal B,mathbb P(xi^1_t_1in A_1,cdots,xi^1_t_nin A_n)=mathbb P(xi^2_t_1in A_1,cdots,xi^2_t_nin A_n),
          $$

          then $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have the same distribution, that is to say
          $$
          forall Ainmathcal B^otimes T,mathbb P((xi^1_t)_tinmathbb Rin A)=mathbb P((xi^2_t)_tinmathbb Rin A).
          $$



          The short way of saying this is that if two processes $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have the same finite dimensional distributions, then they have the same distribution. In the general case, you cannot deduce the almost sure equality between the two processes.



          Let us now illustrate the last sentence. Let $T=[0,1]$, $U$ be a random variable uniformly distributed on $[0,1]$ and $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ be defined for all $tin T$ by $xi^1_t=0$ and $xi^2_t=1_U=t$ (that is $1$ if $U=t$ and $0$ otherwise). Then for all $tin [0,T]$, $xi^1_t=xi^2_t$ a.s. (since $mathbb P(U=t)=0$) so we easily deduce that $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have equal finite dimensional distributions and therefore equal distributions. However, $xi^1$ is clearly continuous and $xi^2$ discontinuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Will is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer, but my question was rather for $T=mathbb N$ (or $1,...,n$). The statement looks stronger. (I know that for the case $T=[0,1]$ is not true that the process are a.s. equal when they have same distribution)
            $endgroup$
            – Pierre
            Mar 12 at 11:33











          • $begingroup$
            Everything I said (except the last paragraph of course) is valid for $T$ countable. If $T=mathbb N$ or $1,cdots,n$ you can deduce the equality of the distributions but not the equality a.s.
            $endgroup$
            – Will
            Mar 12 at 12:08













          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          No.



          It means that if two stochastic processes $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ are such that
          $$
          forall t_1,cdots,t_nin T,forall A_1,cdots,A_ninmathcal B,mathbb P(xi^1_t_1in A_1,cdots,xi^1_t_nin A_n)=mathbb P(xi^2_t_1in A_1,cdots,xi^2_t_nin A_n),
          $$

          then $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have the same distribution, that is to say
          $$
          forall Ainmathcal B^otimes T,mathbb P((xi^1_t)_tinmathbb Rin A)=mathbb P((xi^2_t)_tinmathbb Rin A).
          $$



          The short way of saying this is that if two processes $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have the same finite dimensional distributions, then they have the same distribution. In the general case, you cannot deduce the almost sure equality between the two processes.



          Let us now illustrate the last sentence. Let $T=[0,1]$, $U$ be a random variable uniformly distributed on $[0,1]$ and $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ be defined for all $tin T$ by $xi^1_t=0$ and $xi^2_t=1_U=t$ (that is $1$ if $U=t$ and $0$ otherwise). Then for all $tin [0,T]$, $xi^1_t=xi^2_t$ a.s. (since $mathbb P(U=t)=0$) so we easily deduce that $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have equal finite dimensional distributions and therefore equal distributions. However, $xi^1$ is clearly continuous and $xi^2$ discontinuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Will is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          $endgroup$



          No.



          It means that if two stochastic processes $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ are such that
          $$
          forall t_1,cdots,t_nin T,forall A_1,cdots,A_ninmathcal B,mathbb P(xi^1_t_1in A_1,cdots,xi^1_t_nin A_n)=mathbb P(xi^2_t_1in A_1,cdots,xi^2_t_nin A_n),
          $$

          then $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have the same distribution, that is to say
          $$
          forall Ainmathcal B^otimes T,mathbb P((xi^1_t)_tinmathbb Rin A)=mathbb P((xi^2_t)_tinmathbb Rin A).
          $$



          The short way of saying this is that if two processes $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have the same finite dimensional distributions, then they have the same distribution. In the general case, you cannot deduce the almost sure equality between the two processes.



          Let us now illustrate the last sentence. Let $T=[0,1]$, $U$ be a random variable uniformly distributed on $[0,1]$ and $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ be defined for all $tin T$ by $xi^1_t=0$ and $xi^2_t=1_U=t$ (that is $1$ if $U=t$ and $0$ otherwise). Then for all $tin [0,T]$, $xi^1_t=xi^2_t$ a.s. (since $mathbb P(U=t)=0$) so we easily deduce that $xi^1$ and $xi^2$ have equal finite dimensional distributions and therefore equal distributions. However, $xi^1$ is clearly continuous and $xi^2$ discontinuous.







          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Will is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer






          New contributor




          Will is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          answered Mar 12 at 11:10









          WillWill

          1663




          1663




          New contributor




          Will is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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          New contributor





          Will is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          Will is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.











          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer, but my question was rather for $T=mathbb N$ (or $1,...,n$). The statement looks stronger. (I know that for the case $T=[0,1]$ is not true that the process are a.s. equal when they have same distribution)
            $endgroup$
            – Pierre
            Mar 12 at 11:33











          • $begingroup$
            Everything I said (except the last paragraph of course) is valid for $T$ countable. If $T=mathbb N$ or $1,cdots,n$ you can deduce the equality of the distributions but not the equality a.s.
            $endgroup$
            – Will
            Mar 12 at 12:08
















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer, but my question was rather for $T=mathbb N$ (or $1,...,n$). The statement looks stronger. (I know that for the case $T=[0,1]$ is not true that the process are a.s. equal when they have same distribution)
            $endgroup$
            – Pierre
            Mar 12 at 11:33











          • $begingroup$
            Everything I said (except the last paragraph of course) is valid for $T$ countable. If $T=mathbb N$ or $1,cdots,n$ you can deduce the equality of the distributions but not the equality a.s.
            $endgroup$
            – Will
            Mar 12 at 12:08















          $begingroup$
          Thank you for your answer, but my question was rather for $T=mathbb N$ (or $1,...,n$). The statement looks stronger. (I know that for the case $T=[0,1]$ is not true that the process are a.s. equal when they have same distribution)
          $endgroup$
          – Pierre
          Mar 12 at 11:33





          $begingroup$
          Thank you for your answer, but my question was rather for $T=mathbb N$ (or $1,...,n$). The statement looks stronger. (I know that for the case $T=[0,1]$ is not true that the process are a.s. equal when they have same distribution)
          $endgroup$
          – Pierre
          Mar 12 at 11:33













          $begingroup$
          Everything I said (except the last paragraph of course) is valid for $T$ countable. If $T=mathbb N$ or $1,cdots,n$ you can deduce the equality of the distributions but not the equality a.s.
          $endgroup$
          – Will
          Mar 12 at 12:08




          $begingroup$
          Everything I said (except the last paragraph of course) is valid for $T$ countable. If $T=mathbb N$ or $1,cdots,n$ you can deduce the equality of the distributions but not the equality a.s.
          $endgroup$
          – Will
          Mar 12 at 12:08










          Pierre is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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