On existence of composition of functionsIf $f:mathbbR to mathbbZ$, why can't we have that $g circ f$?Composition of Periodic Functions.Does(n't) associativity of functional composition follow straightaway from associativity of relational composition?Surjectivity of Composite FunctionsCan the composition of two non-invertible functions be invertible?Understanding Theorems on Composition of functionsWhen is composition of functions defined?non-existence of an infinite composition of functionsComposition of functions proofsIs this proof about composition functions correct?
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On existence of composition of functions
If $f:mathbbR to mathbbZ$, why can't we have that $g circ f$?Composition of Periodic Functions.Does(n't) associativity of functional composition follow straightaway from associativity of relational composition?Surjectivity of Composite FunctionsCan the composition of two non-invertible functions be invertible?Understanding Theorems on Composition of functionsWhen is composition of functions defined?non-existence of an infinite composition of functionsComposition of functions proofsIs this proof about composition functions correct?
$begingroup$
Let $f: A rightarrow B$ and $g: B rightarrow C$ be two functions.
Then $g circ f$ is clearly defined $forall a in A$ but what about $f circ g$, do we take it as undefined, given that A and C are disjoint? What if A and C are not disjoint?
Since domain of $g$ is the same as the codomain of $f$ hence $g circ f$ exists $forall a in A$.
What I think:
If A and C are disjoint sets, then $f(c)$ is not defined, since $cin C$ is not in the domain of $f$
Am I missing something?
function-and-relation-composition
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f: A rightarrow B$ and $g: B rightarrow C$ be two functions.
Then $g circ f$ is clearly defined $forall a in A$ but what about $f circ g$, do we take it as undefined, given that A and C are disjoint? What if A and C are not disjoint?
Since domain of $g$ is the same as the codomain of $f$ hence $g circ f$ exists $forall a in A$.
What I think:
If A and C are disjoint sets, then $f(c)$ is not defined, since $cin C$ is not in the domain of $f$
Am I missing something?
function-and-relation-composition
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
your logic is sound.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Mar 14 at 15:38
1
$begingroup$
I think a better way to phrase this is that $f(c)$ is not defined, since $cin C$ is not in the domain of $f$
$endgroup$
– pwerth
Mar 14 at 15:39
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f: A rightarrow B$ and $g: B rightarrow C$ be two functions.
Then $g circ f$ is clearly defined $forall a in A$ but what about $f circ g$, do we take it as undefined, given that A and C are disjoint? What if A and C are not disjoint?
Since domain of $g$ is the same as the codomain of $f$ hence $g circ f$ exists $forall a in A$.
What I think:
If A and C are disjoint sets, then $f(c)$ is not defined, since $cin C$ is not in the domain of $f$
Am I missing something?
function-and-relation-composition
$endgroup$
Let $f: A rightarrow B$ and $g: B rightarrow C$ be two functions.
Then $g circ f$ is clearly defined $forall a in A$ but what about $f circ g$, do we take it as undefined, given that A and C are disjoint? What if A and C are not disjoint?
Since domain of $g$ is the same as the codomain of $f$ hence $g circ f$ exists $forall a in A$.
What I think:
If A and C are disjoint sets, then $f(c)$ is not defined, since $cin C$ is not in the domain of $f$
Am I missing something?
function-and-relation-composition
function-and-relation-composition
edited Mar 14 at 15:48
Aditya
asked Mar 14 at 15:34
AdityaAditya
496
496
1
$begingroup$
your logic is sound.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Mar 14 at 15:38
1
$begingroup$
I think a better way to phrase this is that $f(c)$ is not defined, since $cin C$ is not in the domain of $f$
$endgroup$
– pwerth
Mar 14 at 15:39
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
your logic is sound.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Mar 14 at 15:38
1
$begingroup$
I think a better way to phrase this is that $f(c)$ is not defined, since $cin C$ is not in the domain of $f$
$endgroup$
– pwerth
Mar 14 at 15:39
1
1
$begingroup$
your logic is sound.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Mar 14 at 15:38
$begingroup$
your logic is sound.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Mar 14 at 15:38
1
1
$begingroup$
I think a better way to phrase this is that $f(c)$ is not defined, since $cin C$ is not in the domain of $f$
$endgroup$
– pwerth
Mar 14 at 15:39
$begingroup$
I think a better way to phrase this is that $f(c)$ is not defined, since $cin C$ is not in the domain of $f$
$endgroup$
– pwerth
Mar 14 at 15:39
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
There is a strict definition for composition:
If $f: A to B$, $g: C to D$ are functions, the composition $f circ g$ is the function $C to B$ given by $c mapsto g(c) mapsto f(g(c))$, which is well defined if and only if $g(c) in A$.
So indeed your intuition is right.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
There is a strict definition for composition:
If $f: A to B$, $g: C to D$ are functions, the composition $f circ g$ is the function $C to B$ given by $c mapsto g(c) mapsto f(g(c))$, which is well defined if and only if $g(c) in A$.
So indeed your intuition is right.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There is a strict definition for composition:
If $f: A to B$, $g: C to D$ are functions, the composition $f circ g$ is the function $C to B$ given by $c mapsto g(c) mapsto f(g(c))$, which is well defined if and only if $g(c) in A$.
So indeed your intuition is right.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There is a strict definition for composition:
If $f: A to B$, $g: C to D$ are functions, the composition $f circ g$ is the function $C to B$ given by $c mapsto g(c) mapsto f(g(c))$, which is well defined if and only if $g(c) in A$.
So indeed your intuition is right.
$endgroup$
There is a strict definition for composition:
If $f: A to B$, $g: C to D$ are functions, the composition $f circ g$ is the function $C to B$ given by $c mapsto g(c) mapsto f(g(c))$, which is well defined if and only if $g(c) in A$.
So indeed your intuition is right.
answered Mar 14 at 15:57
MariahMariah
1,8231718
1,8231718
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
$begingroup$
your logic is sound.
$endgroup$
– Doug M
Mar 14 at 15:38
1
$begingroup$
I think a better way to phrase this is that $f(c)$ is not defined, since $cin C$ is not in the domain of $f$
$endgroup$
– pwerth
Mar 14 at 15:39