Formulating the polynomial regressionHow to handle constant term in Least Squares Regression?Formulating regression model in matrix notationGLM for Poisson Regression for Soccer Ratings Not ConvergingComputing vector linear regressionVariance of Beta in the Normal Linear Regression ModelRegression with multiple categories2 Dimension Linear Regression Math ProblemTwo equivalent ways of polynomial regression?Simple Linear Regression problem involving its design matrixOn a nonlinear regression problem

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Formulating the polynomial regression


How to handle constant term in Least Squares Regression?Formulating regression model in matrix notationGLM for Poisson Regression for Soccer Ratings Not ConvergingComputing vector linear regressionVariance of Beta in the Normal Linear Regression ModelRegression with multiple categories2 Dimension Linear Regression Math ProblemTwo equivalent ways of polynomial regression?Simple Linear Regression problem involving its design matrixOn a nonlinear regression problem













0












$begingroup$


I'm trying to formulate a regression problem such that $y=ax^b$. Previously, I formulated the $y=ax+b$ like $y=Ac+e$ where $c=
beginbmatrix
a\
b
endbmatrix$
and $A=
beginbmatrix
x_1 & 1\
x_2 & 1\
. & \
. & \
x_n & 1
endbmatrix$



Can I only change the A matrix such that $A=
beginbmatrix
x_1^b & 1\
x_2^b & 1\
. & \
. & \
x_n^b & 1
endbmatrix$
and change c as $c=
beginbmatrix
a\
0
endbmatrix$
and write the same formula $y=Ac+e$



Am I correct? Any help would be appreciated. Many thanks










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    To use linear regression, your model has to be linear in the parameters. Your model is not linear in $a$ and $b$.
    $endgroup$
    – John Douma
    Mar 14 at 15:59






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $a$ and $b$ are to be determined you probably might want to consider the model $ln y= b ln x+ln a$, a linear model quite frequently used for powerfunctions.
    $endgroup$
    – Jens Schwaiger
    Mar 14 at 16:57















0












$begingroup$


I'm trying to formulate a regression problem such that $y=ax^b$. Previously, I formulated the $y=ax+b$ like $y=Ac+e$ where $c=
beginbmatrix
a\
b
endbmatrix$
and $A=
beginbmatrix
x_1 & 1\
x_2 & 1\
. & \
. & \
x_n & 1
endbmatrix$



Can I only change the A matrix such that $A=
beginbmatrix
x_1^b & 1\
x_2^b & 1\
. & \
. & \
x_n^b & 1
endbmatrix$
and change c as $c=
beginbmatrix
a\
0
endbmatrix$
and write the same formula $y=Ac+e$



Am I correct? Any help would be appreciated. Many thanks










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    To use linear regression, your model has to be linear in the parameters. Your model is not linear in $a$ and $b$.
    $endgroup$
    – John Douma
    Mar 14 at 15:59






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $a$ and $b$ are to be determined you probably might want to consider the model $ln y= b ln x+ln a$, a linear model quite frequently used for powerfunctions.
    $endgroup$
    – Jens Schwaiger
    Mar 14 at 16:57













0












0








0





$begingroup$


I'm trying to formulate a regression problem such that $y=ax^b$. Previously, I formulated the $y=ax+b$ like $y=Ac+e$ where $c=
beginbmatrix
a\
b
endbmatrix$
and $A=
beginbmatrix
x_1 & 1\
x_2 & 1\
. & \
. & \
x_n & 1
endbmatrix$



Can I only change the A matrix such that $A=
beginbmatrix
x_1^b & 1\
x_2^b & 1\
. & \
. & \
x_n^b & 1
endbmatrix$
and change c as $c=
beginbmatrix
a\
0
endbmatrix$
and write the same formula $y=Ac+e$



Am I correct? Any help would be appreciated. Many thanks










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm trying to formulate a regression problem such that $y=ax^b$. Previously, I formulated the $y=ax+b$ like $y=Ac+e$ where $c=
beginbmatrix
a\
b
endbmatrix$
and $A=
beginbmatrix
x_1 & 1\
x_2 & 1\
. & \
. & \
x_n & 1
endbmatrix$



Can I only change the A matrix such that $A=
beginbmatrix
x_1^b & 1\
x_2^b & 1\
. & \
. & \
x_n^b & 1
endbmatrix$
and change c as $c=
beginbmatrix
a\
0
endbmatrix$
and write the same formula $y=Ac+e$



Am I correct? Any help would be appreciated. Many thanks







regression linear-regression






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 14 at 15:55









JasonJason

12




12











  • $begingroup$
    To use linear regression, your model has to be linear in the parameters. Your model is not linear in $a$ and $b$.
    $endgroup$
    – John Douma
    Mar 14 at 15:59






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $a$ and $b$ are to be determined you probably might want to consider the model $ln y= b ln x+ln a$, a linear model quite frequently used for powerfunctions.
    $endgroup$
    – Jens Schwaiger
    Mar 14 at 16:57
















  • $begingroup$
    To use linear regression, your model has to be linear in the parameters. Your model is not linear in $a$ and $b$.
    $endgroup$
    – John Douma
    Mar 14 at 15:59






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If $a$ and $b$ are to be determined you probably might want to consider the model $ln y= b ln x+ln a$, a linear model quite frequently used for powerfunctions.
    $endgroup$
    – Jens Schwaiger
    Mar 14 at 16:57















$begingroup$
To use linear regression, your model has to be linear in the parameters. Your model is not linear in $a$ and $b$.
$endgroup$
– John Douma
Mar 14 at 15:59




$begingroup$
To use linear regression, your model has to be linear in the parameters. Your model is not linear in $a$ and $b$.
$endgroup$
– John Douma
Mar 14 at 15:59




1




1




$begingroup$
If $a$ and $b$ are to be determined you probably might want to consider the model $ln y= b ln x+ln a$, a linear model quite frequently used for powerfunctions.
$endgroup$
– Jens Schwaiger
Mar 14 at 16:57




$begingroup$
If $a$ and $b$ are to be determined you probably might want to consider the model $ln y= b ln x+ln a$, a linear model quite frequently used for powerfunctions.
$endgroup$
– Jens Schwaiger
Mar 14 at 16:57










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

No.
You need all the powers in the columns of A.



Write the problem as minimizing
$D=sum_k=1^m (y_k-sum_j=0^n a_jx_k^j)^2$.



Set $partial D/partial a_j =0$
for each $j$ and see what you get.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Sir, when I take the derivative, I get the following equation: $$y_k=sum_j=0^n a_j x_k^j $$ How can I proceed to express them in matrix form? Many thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Jason
    Mar 14 at 16:11











  • $begingroup$
    beginbmatrix y1 \ y2 \ . \ . \ y_n endbmatrix = beginbmatrix a & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ a & a & 0 & ... & 0 \ . \ . \ a & a & a & ... & a endbmatrixbeginbmatrix x_1^b \ x_2^b \ . \ . \ x_n^b endbmatrix + beginbmatrix e_1 \ e_2 \ . \ . \ e_n endbmatrix Am I correct now, sir?
    $endgroup$
    – Jason
    Mar 14 at 16:37


















0












$begingroup$

You have three alternatives to solve this problem.



1. Alternative: As Jens Schwaiger proposed you can rewrite the equation as $ln y_i = ln a + b ln x_i+ tildevarepsilon_i$. If we introduce the coefficient $tildea=ln a$ and the transformed outputs $tildey_i=ln y_i$ then it is possible to perform a standard linear regression. the coefficients $boldsymbolw=[tildea,b]^T=[ln a, b]^T$ can be estimated by the least squares estimate



$$hatboldsymbolw=left[boldsymbolPhi^TboldsymbolPhi right]^-1boldsymbolPhi^Ttildeboldsymboly,qquad (*)$$



in which $tildeboldsymboly=left[ln y_1, ln y_2, ldots, ln y_nright]^T$ is the transformed output vector and



$$boldsymbolPhi = beginbmatrix1 & ln x_1\1 & ln x_2 \ vdots & vdots \1 & ln x_n endbmatrix.$$



2. Alternative: We have $y_i = ax_i^b+varepsilon_i=aexp(bln x_i)+varepsilon_i$. We can now expand the exponential function by a taylor series.



$$y_i=aleft[1+bln x_i + b^2/2!left[ln x_iright]^2+b^3/3![ln x_i]^3+cdots right]+varepsilon_i $$



If we truncate the series to the $m^textth$ power then we can approximate $y_i$ as



$$y_i approx left[a+abln x_i + ab^2/2!left[ln x_iright]^2+ab^3/3![ln x_i]^3+cdots +ab^m/m!left[ln x_i right]^mright]+varepsilon_i.$$



By introducing the coefficients $w_l = ab^l/l!$ we can rewrite the previous equation as



$$y_i approx left[w_0+w_1ln x_i + w_2left[ln x_iright]^2+w_3[ln x_i]^3+cdots +w_mleft[ln x_i right]^mright]+varepsilon_i.$$



The coefficients are given by equation $(*)$ but now $tildeboldsymboly=boldsymboly=left[y_1, y_2, ldots,y_n right]^T$ and



$$boldsymbolPhi = beginbmatrix1 & ln x_1 & [ln x_1]^2 & cdots & [ln x_1]^m\1 & ln x_2 & [ln x_2]^2 & cdots & [ln x_2]^m\ vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots \1 & ln x_n & [ln x_n]^2 & cdots & [ln x_n]^m\endbmatrix.$$



After having obtained the coefficients $boldsymbolw=[a, ab, ab^2, ..., ab^m]$ you can determine $a=w_0$ and $b=w_1/w_0$ and so forth.



3. Alternative: Full nonlinear least squares (proposed by Marty Cohen), which does not have a closed form solution. Here we use the objective function $E(boldsymbolw=[a,b]^T)$ which is



$$E(boldsymbolw)=sum_i=1^n[y_i-ax_i^b]^2.$$



The partial derivatives are given by



$$dfracpartial Epartial a = sum_i=1^n2[y_i-ax_i^b](-x_i^b)$$
$$dfracpartial Epartial b = sum_i=1^n2[y_i-ax_i^b](-ax_i^bln x_i).$$



After setting these partial derivatives equal to zero you will have to solve a nonlinear equation in the coefficients $a$ and $b$. You can try to numerically solve this equation by using Newton-Raphson.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    No.
    You need all the powers in the columns of A.



    Write the problem as minimizing
    $D=sum_k=1^m (y_k-sum_j=0^n a_jx_k^j)^2$.



    Set $partial D/partial a_j =0$
    for each $j$ and see what you get.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Sir, when I take the derivative, I get the following equation: $$y_k=sum_j=0^n a_j x_k^j $$ How can I proceed to express them in matrix form? Many thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Jason
      Mar 14 at 16:11











    • $begingroup$
      beginbmatrix y1 \ y2 \ . \ . \ y_n endbmatrix = beginbmatrix a & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ a & a & 0 & ... & 0 \ . \ . \ a & a & a & ... & a endbmatrixbeginbmatrix x_1^b \ x_2^b \ . \ . \ x_n^b endbmatrix + beginbmatrix e_1 \ e_2 \ . \ . \ e_n endbmatrix Am I correct now, sir?
      $endgroup$
      – Jason
      Mar 14 at 16:37















    0












    $begingroup$

    No.
    You need all the powers in the columns of A.



    Write the problem as minimizing
    $D=sum_k=1^m (y_k-sum_j=0^n a_jx_k^j)^2$.



    Set $partial D/partial a_j =0$
    for each $j$ and see what you get.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Sir, when I take the derivative, I get the following equation: $$y_k=sum_j=0^n a_j x_k^j $$ How can I proceed to express them in matrix form? Many thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Jason
      Mar 14 at 16:11











    • $begingroup$
      beginbmatrix y1 \ y2 \ . \ . \ y_n endbmatrix = beginbmatrix a & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ a & a & 0 & ... & 0 \ . \ . \ a & a & a & ... & a endbmatrixbeginbmatrix x_1^b \ x_2^b \ . \ . \ x_n^b endbmatrix + beginbmatrix e_1 \ e_2 \ . \ . \ e_n endbmatrix Am I correct now, sir?
      $endgroup$
      – Jason
      Mar 14 at 16:37













    0












    0








    0





    $begingroup$

    No.
    You need all the powers in the columns of A.



    Write the problem as minimizing
    $D=sum_k=1^m (y_k-sum_j=0^n a_jx_k^j)^2$.



    Set $partial D/partial a_j =0$
    for each $j$ and see what you get.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    No.
    You need all the powers in the columns of A.



    Write the problem as minimizing
    $D=sum_k=1^m (y_k-sum_j=0^n a_jx_k^j)^2$.



    Set $partial D/partial a_j =0$
    for each $j$ and see what you get.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Mar 14 at 16:02









    marty cohenmarty cohen

    74.5k549129




    74.5k549129











    • $begingroup$
      Sir, when I take the derivative, I get the following equation: $$y_k=sum_j=0^n a_j x_k^j $$ How can I proceed to express them in matrix form? Many thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Jason
      Mar 14 at 16:11











    • $begingroup$
      beginbmatrix y1 \ y2 \ . \ . \ y_n endbmatrix = beginbmatrix a & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ a & a & 0 & ... & 0 \ . \ . \ a & a & a & ... & a endbmatrixbeginbmatrix x_1^b \ x_2^b \ . \ . \ x_n^b endbmatrix + beginbmatrix e_1 \ e_2 \ . \ . \ e_n endbmatrix Am I correct now, sir?
      $endgroup$
      – Jason
      Mar 14 at 16:37
















    • $begingroup$
      Sir, when I take the derivative, I get the following equation: $$y_k=sum_j=0^n a_j x_k^j $$ How can I proceed to express them in matrix form? Many thanks
      $endgroup$
      – Jason
      Mar 14 at 16:11











    • $begingroup$
      beginbmatrix y1 \ y2 \ . \ . \ y_n endbmatrix = beginbmatrix a & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ a & a & 0 & ... & 0 \ . \ . \ a & a & a & ... & a endbmatrixbeginbmatrix x_1^b \ x_2^b \ . \ . \ x_n^b endbmatrix + beginbmatrix e_1 \ e_2 \ . \ . \ e_n endbmatrix Am I correct now, sir?
      $endgroup$
      – Jason
      Mar 14 at 16:37















    $begingroup$
    Sir, when I take the derivative, I get the following equation: $$y_k=sum_j=0^n a_j x_k^j $$ How can I proceed to express them in matrix form? Many thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Jason
    Mar 14 at 16:11





    $begingroup$
    Sir, when I take the derivative, I get the following equation: $$y_k=sum_j=0^n a_j x_k^j $$ How can I proceed to express them in matrix form? Many thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Jason
    Mar 14 at 16:11













    $begingroup$
    beginbmatrix y1 \ y2 \ . \ . \ y_n endbmatrix = beginbmatrix a & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ a & a & 0 & ... & 0 \ . \ . \ a & a & a & ... & a endbmatrixbeginbmatrix x_1^b \ x_2^b \ . \ . \ x_n^b endbmatrix + beginbmatrix e_1 \ e_2 \ . \ . \ e_n endbmatrix Am I correct now, sir?
    $endgroup$
    – Jason
    Mar 14 at 16:37




    $begingroup$
    beginbmatrix y1 \ y2 \ . \ . \ y_n endbmatrix = beginbmatrix a & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ a & a & 0 & ... & 0 \ . \ . \ a & a & a & ... & a endbmatrixbeginbmatrix x_1^b \ x_2^b \ . \ . \ x_n^b endbmatrix + beginbmatrix e_1 \ e_2 \ . \ . \ e_n endbmatrix Am I correct now, sir?
    $endgroup$
    – Jason
    Mar 14 at 16:37











    0












    $begingroup$

    You have three alternatives to solve this problem.



    1. Alternative: As Jens Schwaiger proposed you can rewrite the equation as $ln y_i = ln a + b ln x_i+ tildevarepsilon_i$. If we introduce the coefficient $tildea=ln a$ and the transformed outputs $tildey_i=ln y_i$ then it is possible to perform a standard linear regression. the coefficients $boldsymbolw=[tildea,b]^T=[ln a, b]^T$ can be estimated by the least squares estimate



    $$hatboldsymbolw=left[boldsymbolPhi^TboldsymbolPhi right]^-1boldsymbolPhi^Ttildeboldsymboly,qquad (*)$$



    in which $tildeboldsymboly=left[ln y_1, ln y_2, ldots, ln y_nright]^T$ is the transformed output vector and



    $$boldsymbolPhi = beginbmatrix1 & ln x_1\1 & ln x_2 \ vdots & vdots \1 & ln x_n endbmatrix.$$



    2. Alternative: We have $y_i = ax_i^b+varepsilon_i=aexp(bln x_i)+varepsilon_i$. We can now expand the exponential function by a taylor series.



    $$y_i=aleft[1+bln x_i + b^2/2!left[ln x_iright]^2+b^3/3![ln x_i]^3+cdots right]+varepsilon_i $$



    If we truncate the series to the $m^textth$ power then we can approximate $y_i$ as



    $$y_i approx left[a+abln x_i + ab^2/2!left[ln x_iright]^2+ab^3/3![ln x_i]^3+cdots +ab^m/m!left[ln x_i right]^mright]+varepsilon_i.$$



    By introducing the coefficients $w_l = ab^l/l!$ we can rewrite the previous equation as



    $$y_i approx left[w_0+w_1ln x_i + w_2left[ln x_iright]^2+w_3[ln x_i]^3+cdots +w_mleft[ln x_i right]^mright]+varepsilon_i.$$



    The coefficients are given by equation $(*)$ but now $tildeboldsymboly=boldsymboly=left[y_1, y_2, ldots,y_n right]^T$ and



    $$boldsymbolPhi = beginbmatrix1 & ln x_1 & [ln x_1]^2 & cdots & [ln x_1]^m\1 & ln x_2 & [ln x_2]^2 & cdots & [ln x_2]^m\ vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots \1 & ln x_n & [ln x_n]^2 & cdots & [ln x_n]^m\endbmatrix.$$



    After having obtained the coefficients $boldsymbolw=[a, ab, ab^2, ..., ab^m]$ you can determine $a=w_0$ and $b=w_1/w_0$ and so forth.



    3. Alternative: Full nonlinear least squares (proposed by Marty Cohen), which does not have a closed form solution. Here we use the objective function $E(boldsymbolw=[a,b]^T)$ which is



    $$E(boldsymbolw)=sum_i=1^n[y_i-ax_i^b]^2.$$



    The partial derivatives are given by



    $$dfracpartial Epartial a = sum_i=1^n2[y_i-ax_i^b](-x_i^b)$$
    $$dfracpartial Epartial b = sum_i=1^n2[y_i-ax_i^b](-ax_i^bln x_i).$$



    After setting these partial derivatives equal to zero you will have to solve a nonlinear equation in the coefficients $a$ and $b$. You can try to numerically solve this equation by using Newton-Raphson.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      0












      $begingroup$

      You have three alternatives to solve this problem.



      1. Alternative: As Jens Schwaiger proposed you can rewrite the equation as $ln y_i = ln a + b ln x_i+ tildevarepsilon_i$. If we introduce the coefficient $tildea=ln a$ and the transformed outputs $tildey_i=ln y_i$ then it is possible to perform a standard linear regression. the coefficients $boldsymbolw=[tildea,b]^T=[ln a, b]^T$ can be estimated by the least squares estimate



      $$hatboldsymbolw=left[boldsymbolPhi^TboldsymbolPhi right]^-1boldsymbolPhi^Ttildeboldsymboly,qquad (*)$$



      in which $tildeboldsymboly=left[ln y_1, ln y_2, ldots, ln y_nright]^T$ is the transformed output vector and



      $$boldsymbolPhi = beginbmatrix1 & ln x_1\1 & ln x_2 \ vdots & vdots \1 & ln x_n endbmatrix.$$



      2. Alternative: We have $y_i = ax_i^b+varepsilon_i=aexp(bln x_i)+varepsilon_i$. We can now expand the exponential function by a taylor series.



      $$y_i=aleft[1+bln x_i + b^2/2!left[ln x_iright]^2+b^3/3![ln x_i]^3+cdots right]+varepsilon_i $$



      If we truncate the series to the $m^textth$ power then we can approximate $y_i$ as



      $$y_i approx left[a+abln x_i + ab^2/2!left[ln x_iright]^2+ab^3/3![ln x_i]^3+cdots +ab^m/m!left[ln x_i right]^mright]+varepsilon_i.$$



      By introducing the coefficients $w_l = ab^l/l!$ we can rewrite the previous equation as



      $$y_i approx left[w_0+w_1ln x_i + w_2left[ln x_iright]^2+w_3[ln x_i]^3+cdots +w_mleft[ln x_i right]^mright]+varepsilon_i.$$



      The coefficients are given by equation $(*)$ but now $tildeboldsymboly=boldsymboly=left[y_1, y_2, ldots,y_n right]^T$ and



      $$boldsymbolPhi = beginbmatrix1 & ln x_1 & [ln x_1]^2 & cdots & [ln x_1]^m\1 & ln x_2 & [ln x_2]^2 & cdots & [ln x_2]^m\ vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots \1 & ln x_n & [ln x_n]^2 & cdots & [ln x_n]^m\endbmatrix.$$



      After having obtained the coefficients $boldsymbolw=[a, ab, ab^2, ..., ab^m]$ you can determine $a=w_0$ and $b=w_1/w_0$ and so forth.



      3. Alternative: Full nonlinear least squares (proposed by Marty Cohen), which does not have a closed form solution. Here we use the objective function $E(boldsymbolw=[a,b]^T)$ which is



      $$E(boldsymbolw)=sum_i=1^n[y_i-ax_i^b]^2.$$



      The partial derivatives are given by



      $$dfracpartial Epartial a = sum_i=1^n2[y_i-ax_i^b](-x_i^b)$$
      $$dfracpartial Epartial b = sum_i=1^n2[y_i-ax_i^b](-ax_i^bln x_i).$$



      After setting these partial derivatives equal to zero you will have to solve a nonlinear equation in the coefficients $a$ and $b$. You can try to numerically solve this equation by using Newton-Raphson.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        You have three alternatives to solve this problem.



        1. Alternative: As Jens Schwaiger proposed you can rewrite the equation as $ln y_i = ln a + b ln x_i+ tildevarepsilon_i$. If we introduce the coefficient $tildea=ln a$ and the transformed outputs $tildey_i=ln y_i$ then it is possible to perform a standard linear regression. the coefficients $boldsymbolw=[tildea,b]^T=[ln a, b]^T$ can be estimated by the least squares estimate



        $$hatboldsymbolw=left[boldsymbolPhi^TboldsymbolPhi right]^-1boldsymbolPhi^Ttildeboldsymboly,qquad (*)$$



        in which $tildeboldsymboly=left[ln y_1, ln y_2, ldots, ln y_nright]^T$ is the transformed output vector and



        $$boldsymbolPhi = beginbmatrix1 & ln x_1\1 & ln x_2 \ vdots & vdots \1 & ln x_n endbmatrix.$$



        2. Alternative: We have $y_i = ax_i^b+varepsilon_i=aexp(bln x_i)+varepsilon_i$. We can now expand the exponential function by a taylor series.



        $$y_i=aleft[1+bln x_i + b^2/2!left[ln x_iright]^2+b^3/3![ln x_i]^3+cdots right]+varepsilon_i $$



        If we truncate the series to the $m^textth$ power then we can approximate $y_i$ as



        $$y_i approx left[a+abln x_i + ab^2/2!left[ln x_iright]^2+ab^3/3![ln x_i]^3+cdots +ab^m/m!left[ln x_i right]^mright]+varepsilon_i.$$



        By introducing the coefficients $w_l = ab^l/l!$ we can rewrite the previous equation as



        $$y_i approx left[w_0+w_1ln x_i + w_2left[ln x_iright]^2+w_3[ln x_i]^3+cdots +w_mleft[ln x_i right]^mright]+varepsilon_i.$$



        The coefficients are given by equation $(*)$ but now $tildeboldsymboly=boldsymboly=left[y_1, y_2, ldots,y_n right]^T$ and



        $$boldsymbolPhi = beginbmatrix1 & ln x_1 & [ln x_1]^2 & cdots & [ln x_1]^m\1 & ln x_2 & [ln x_2]^2 & cdots & [ln x_2]^m\ vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots \1 & ln x_n & [ln x_n]^2 & cdots & [ln x_n]^m\endbmatrix.$$



        After having obtained the coefficients $boldsymbolw=[a, ab, ab^2, ..., ab^m]$ you can determine $a=w_0$ and $b=w_1/w_0$ and so forth.



        3. Alternative: Full nonlinear least squares (proposed by Marty Cohen), which does not have a closed form solution. Here we use the objective function $E(boldsymbolw=[a,b]^T)$ which is



        $$E(boldsymbolw)=sum_i=1^n[y_i-ax_i^b]^2.$$



        The partial derivatives are given by



        $$dfracpartial Epartial a = sum_i=1^n2[y_i-ax_i^b](-x_i^b)$$
        $$dfracpartial Epartial b = sum_i=1^n2[y_i-ax_i^b](-ax_i^bln x_i).$$



        After setting these partial derivatives equal to zero you will have to solve a nonlinear equation in the coefficients $a$ and $b$. You can try to numerically solve this equation by using Newton-Raphson.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        You have three alternatives to solve this problem.



        1. Alternative: As Jens Schwaiger proposed you can rewrite the equation as $ln y_i = ln a + b ln x_i+ tildevarepsilon_i$. If we introduce the coefficient $tildea=ln a$ and the transformed outputs $tildey_i=ln y_i$ then it is possible to perform a standard linear regression. the coefficients $boldsymbolw=[tildea,b]^T=[ln a, b]^T$ can be estimated by the least squares estimate



        $$hatboldsymbolw=left[boldsymbolPhi^TboldsymbolPhi right]^-1boldsymbolPhi^Ttildeboldsymboly,qquad (*)$$



        in which $tildeboldsymboly=left[ln y_1, ln y_2, ldots, ln y_nright]^T$ is the transformed output vector and



        $$boldsymbolPhi = beginbmatrix1 & ln x_1\1 & ln x_2 \ vdots & vdots \1 & ln x_n endbmatrix.$$



        2. Alternative: We have $y_i = ax_i^b+varepsilon_i=aexp(bln x_i)+varepsilon_i$. We can now expand the exponential function by a taylor series.



        $$y_i=aleft[1+bln x_i + b^2/2!left[ln x_iright]^2+b^3/3![ln x_i]^3+cdots right]+varepsilon_i $$



        If we truncate the series to the $m^textth$ power then we can approximate $y_i$ as



        $$y_i approx left[a+abln x_i + ab^2/2!left[ln x_iright]^2+ab^3/3![ln x_i]^3+cdots +ab^m/m!left[ln x_i right]^mright]+varepsilon_i.$$



        By introducing the coefficients $w_l = ab^l/l!$ we can rewrite the previous equation as



        $$y_i approx left[w_0+w_1ln x_i + w_2left[ln x_iright]^2+w_3[ln x_i]^3+cdots +w_mleft[ln x_i right]^mright]+varepsilon_i.$$



        The coefficients are given by equation $(*)$ but now $tildeboldsymboly=boldsymboly=left[y_1, y_2, ldots,y_n right]^T$ and



        $$boldsymbolPhi = beginbmatrix1 & ln x_1 & [ln x_1]^2 & cdots & [ln x_1]^m\1 & ln x_2 & [ln x_2]^2 & cdots & [ln x_2]^m\ vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots \1 & ln x_n & [ln x_n]^2 & cdots & [ln x_n]^m\endbmatrix.$$



        After having obtained the coefficients $boldsymbolw=[a, ab, ab^2, ..., ab^m]$ you can determine $a=w_0$ and $b=w_1/w_0$ and so forth.



        3. Alternative: Full nonlinear least squares (proposed by Marty Cohen), which does not have a closed form solution. Here we use the objective function $E(boldsymbolw=[a,b]^T)$ which is



        $$E(boldsymbolw)=sum_i=1^n[y_i-ax_i^b]^2.$$



        The partial derivatives are given by



        $$dfracpartial Epartial a = sum_i=1^n2[y_i-ax_i^b](-x_i^b)$$
        $$dfracpartial Epartial b = sum_i=1^n2[y_i-ax_i^b](-ax_i^bln x_i).$$



        After setting these partial derivatives equal to zero you will have to solve a nonlinear equation in the coefficients $a$ and $b$. You can try to numerically solve this equation by using Newton-Raphson.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 9 hours ago









        MachineLearnerMachineLearner

        96910




        96910



























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