2 path test for non-existenceTwo variable limits via paths - are there pathalogical examples?Showing that a limit exists in $mathbbR^n$Showing limit does not exist using two-path testPath test versus iterated limits for proving existence of a limitA rigorous statement and proof of the two-path testChoosing path to show limit does not existTwo Path Test for finding limit.Limit exist for two path testHow to show a multivariable limit at a point $textbfx$ of $mathbbR^N$ doesn't exist by the path method?Two-path test proof

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2 path test for non-existence


Two variable limits via paths - are there pathalogical examples?Showing that a limit exists in $mathbbR^n$Showing limit does not exist using two-path testPath test versus iterated limits for proving existence of a limitA rigorous statement and proof of the two-path testChoosing path to show limit does not existTwo Path Test for finding limit.Limit exist for two path testHow to show a multivariable limit at a point $textbfx$ of $mathbbR^N$ doesn't exist by the path method?Two-path test proof













1












$begingroup$


Find the limit or show that it does not exist:
$lim _left(x,:yright)to left(1,:-1right)left(fracxy+1x^2-y^2right)$



For this question i have used 2 different paths:



Path 1: $x=0$,
where,
$lim _left(yright)to left(-1right)left(frac1-y^2right) = -1$



Path 2: $y=0$,
where,
$lim _left(xright)to left(1right)left(frac1x^2right) = 1$



This yielded 2 different limits, hence the limit does not exist.
Is this the right approach, and if so, can I use any path to my liking?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    There's a problem with your path. You must get $x$ and $y$ to $1$ and $-1$. You can't put $x=0$, you can try $x=1$ instead.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Mar 14 at 17:54











  • $begingroup$
    @Yanko , why can't i use x = 0?
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 14 at 17:58










  • $begingroup$
    @Yanko so i have to use paths x=1 and y= -1?
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 14 at 17:59










  • $begingroup$
    You don't have to. But you can. You must choose paths that tends to $(1,-1)$. The path $(0,y)$ as $yrightarrow -1$ goes to $(0,-1)$ so you can't use it.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Mar 14 at 19:09















1












$begingroup$


Find the limit or show that it does not exist:
$lim _left(x,:yright)to left(1,:-1right)left(fracxy+1x^2-y^2right)$



For this question i have used 2 different paths:



Path 1: $x=0$,
where,
$lim _left(yright)to left(-1right)left(frac1-y^2right) = -1$



Path 2: $y=0$,
where,
$lim _left(xright)to left(1right)left(frac1x^2right) = 1$



This yielded 2 different limits, hence the limit does not exist.
Is this the right approach, and if so, can I use any path to my liking?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    There's a problem with your path. You must get $x$ and $y$ to $1$ and $-1$. You can't put $x=0$, you can try $x=1$ instead.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Mar 14 at 17:54











  • $begingroup$
    @Yanko , why can't i use x = 0?
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 14 at 17:58










  • $begingroup$
    @Yanko so i have to use paths x=1 and y= -1?
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 14 at 17:59










  • $begingroup$
    You don't have to. But you can. You must choose paths that tends to $(1,-1)$. The path $(0,y)$ as $yrightarrow -1$ goes to $(0,-1)$ so you can't use it.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Mar 14 at 19:09













1












1








1





$begingroup$


Find the limit or show that it does not exist:
$lim _left(x,:yright)to left(1,:-1right)left(fracxy+1x^2-y^2right)$



For this question i have used 2 different paths:



Path 1: $x=0$,
where,
$lim _left(yright)to left(-1right)left(frac1-y^2right) = -1$



Path 2: $y=0$,
where,
$lim _left(xright)to left(1right)left(frac1x^2right) = 1$



This yielded 2 different limits, hence the limit does not exist.
Is this the right approach, and if so, can I use any path to my liking?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Find the limit or show that it does not exist:
$lim _left(x,:yright)to left(1,:-1right)left(fracxy+1x^2-y^2right)$



For this question i have used 2 different paths:



Path 1: $x=0$,
where,
$lim _left(yright)to left(-1right)left(frac1-y^2right) = -1$



Path 2: $y=0$,
where,
$lim _left(xright)to left(1right)left(frac1x^2right) = 1$



This yielded 2 different limits, hence the limit does not exist.
Is this the right approach, and if so, can I use any path to my liking?







calculus limits multivariable-calculus






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 14 at 17:55









Yanko

7,9651830




7,9651830










asked Mar 14 at 17:40









Ashwin selvakumarAshwin selvakumar

84




84











  • $begingroup$
    There's a problem with your path. You must get $x$ and $y$ to $1$ and $-1$. You can't put $x=0$, you can try $x=1$ instead.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Mar 14 at 17:54











  • $begingroup$
    @Yanko , why can't i use x = 0?
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 14 at 17:58










  • $begingroup$
    @Yanko so i have to use paths x=1 and y= -1?
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 14 at 17:59










  • $begingroup$
    You don't have to. But you can. You must choose paths that tends to $(1,-1)$. The path $(0,y)$ as $yrightarrow -1$ goes to $(0,-1)$ so you can't use it.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Mar 14 at 19:09
















  • $begingroup$
    There's a problem with your path. You must get $x$ and $y$ to $1$ and $-1$. You can't put $x=0$, you can try $x=1$ instead.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Mar 14 at 17:54











  • $begingroup$
    @Yanko , why can't i use x = 0?
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 14 at 17:58










  • $begingroup$
    @Yanko so i have to use paths x=1 and y= -1?
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 14 at 17:59










  • $begingroup$
    You don't have to. But you can. You must choose paths that tends to $(1,-1)$. The path $(0,y)$ as $yrightarrow -1$ goes to $(0,-1)$ so you can't use it.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Mar 14 at 19:09















$begingroup$
There's a problem with your path. You must get $x$ and $y$ to $1$ and $-1$. You can't put $x=0$, you can try $x=1$ instead.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Mar 14 at 17:54





$begingroup$
There's a problem with your path. You must get $x$ and $y$ to $1$ and $-1$. You can't put $x=0$, you can try $x=1$ instead.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Mar 14 at 17:54













$begingroup$
@Yanko , why can't i use x = 0?
$endgroup$
– Ashwin selvakumar
Mar 14 at 17:58




$begingroup$
@Yanko , why can't i use x = 0?
$endgroup$
– Ashwin selvakumar
Mar 14 at 17:58












$begingroup$
@Yanko so i have to use paths x=1 and y= -1?
$endgroup$
– Ashwin selvakumar
Mar 14 at 17:59




$begingroup$
@Yanko so i have to use paths x=1 and y= -1?
$endgroup$
– Ashwin selvakumar
Mar 14 at 17:59












$begingroup$
You don't have to. But you can. You must choose paths that tends to $(1,-1)$. The path $(0,y)$ as $yrightarrow -1$ goes to $(0,-1)$ so you can't use it.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Mar 14 at 19:09




$begingroup$
You don't have to. But you can. You must choose paths that tends to $(1,-1)$. The path $(0,y)$ as $yrightarrow -1$ goes to $(0,-1)$ so you can't use it.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Mar 14 at 19:09










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

You're right. The sequence doesn't converge, however your reasoning is wrong.



The fact that $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ exists tells you nothing about how $f$ behaves around $(0,-1)$ and therefore you putting $x=0$ makes no sense.



If $(x,y)rightarrow (1,-1)$ then so is $(1,y)$. Therefore if (by contradiction) $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ exists so does $lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y)$ and both limits must be equal.



$f(1,y) =fracy+11-y^2 = frac1+y(1-y)(1+y) = frac11-y$ whenever $ynot = -1$. Therefore $lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y) = frac12$.



Similar calculation would yield that $lim_xrightarrow 1 f(x,-1) = -frac12$.



However the existence of $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ implies that



$$-frac12 =lim_xrightarrow 1 f(x,-1) = lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y) = lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y)= frac12$$
which is a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you, your explanation makes sense:) @Yanko
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 15 at 18:34










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

You're right. The sequence doesn't converge, however your reasoning is wrong.



The fact that $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ exists tells you nothing about how $f$ behaves around $(0,-1)$ and therefore you putting $x=0$ makes no sense.



If $(x,y)rightarrow (1,-1)$ then so is $(1,y)$. Therefore if (by contradiction) $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ exists so does $lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y)$ and both limits must be equal.



$f(1,y) =fracy+11-y^2 = frac1+y(1-y)(1+y) = frac11-y$ whenever $ynot = -1$. Therefore $lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y) = frac12$.



Similar calculation would yield that $lim_xrightarrow 1 f(x,-1) = -frac12$.



However the existence of $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ implies that



$$-frac12 =lim_xrightarrow 1 f(x,-1) = lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y) = lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y)= frac12$$
which is a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you, your explanation makes sense:) @Yanko
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 15 at 18:34















0












$begingroup$

You're right. The sequence doesn't converge, however your reasoning is wrong.



The fact that $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ exists tells you nothing about how $f$ behaves around $(0,-1)$ and therefore you putting $x=0$ makes no sense.



If $(x,y)rightarrow (1,-1)$ then so is $(1,y)$. Therefore if (by contradiction) $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ exists so does $lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y)$ and both limits must be equal.



$f(1,y) =fracy+11-y^2 = frac1+y(1-y)(1+y) = frac11-y$ whenever $ynot = -1$. Therefore $lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y) = frac12$.



Similar calculation would yield that $lim_xrightarrow 1 f(x,-1) = -frac12$.



However the existence of $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ implies that



$$-frac12 =lim_xrightarrow 1 f(x,-1) = lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y) = lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y)= frac12$$
which is a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you, your explanation makes sense:) @Yanko
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 15 at 18:34













0












0








0





$begingroup$

You're right. The sequence doesn't converge, however your reasoning is wrong.



The fact that $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ exists tells you nothing about how $f$ behaves around $(0,-1)$ and therefore you putting $x=0$ makes no sense.



If $(x,y)rightarrow (1,-1)$ then so is $(1,y)$. Therefore if (by contradiction) $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ exists so does $lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y)$ and both limits must be equal.



$f(1,y) =fracy+11-y^2 = frac1+y(1-y)(1+y) = frac11-y$ whenever $ynot = -1$. Therefore $lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y) = frac12$.



Similar calculation would yield that $lim_xrightarrow 1 f(x,-1) = -frac12$.



However the existence of $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ implies that



$$-frac12 =lim_xrightarrow 1 f(x,-1) = lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y) = lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y)= frac12$$
which is a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



You're right. The sequence doesn't converge, however your reasoning is wrong.



The fact that $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ exists tells you nothing about how $f$ behaves around $(0,-1)$ and therefore you putting $x=0$ makes no sense.



If $(x,y)rightarrow (1,-1)$ then so is $(1,y)$. Therefore if (by contradiction) $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ exists so does $lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y)$ and both limits must be equal.



$f(1,y) =fracy+11-y^2 = frac1+y(1-y)(1+y) = frac11-y$ whenever $ynot = -1$. Therefore $lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y) = frac12$.



Similar calculation would yield that $lim_xrightarrow 1 f(x,-1) = -frac12$.



However the existence of $lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y)$ implies that



$$-frac12 =lim_xrightarrow 1 f(x,-1) = lim_(x,y)rightarrow(1,-1) f(x,y) = lim_yrightarrow -1 f(1,y)= frac12$$
which is a contradiction.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 14 at 19:56









YankoYanko

7,9651830




7,9651830











  • $begingroup$
    Thank you, your explanation makes sense:) @Yanko
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 15 at 18:34
















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you, your explanation makes sense:) @Yanko
    $endgroup$
    – Ashwin selvakumar
    Mar 15 at 18:34















$begingroup$
Thank you, your explanation makes sense:) @Yanko
$endgroup$
– Ashwin selvakumar
Mar 15 at 18:34




$begingroup$
Thank you, your explanation makes sense:) @Yanko
$endgroup$
– Ashwin selvakumar
Mar 15 at 18:34

















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