If R[x] is a UFD, then R is a UFD.Give an example of a UFD having a subring which is not a UFD.About the localization of a UFDPerfect Square in an UFDNon-UFD integral domain such that prime is equivalent to irreducible?Show that “In a UFD, if $p$ is irreducible and $pmid a$, then $p$ appears in every factorization of $a$” is falseIf $R$ is a UFD then $R[X,X^-1]$ is a UFDIs any UFD also a PID?True or false: Every Field is a UFD.A simple algebraic ring extension of a UFD having no prime elementsIn a UFD $R$, if $x$ is irreducible, then $(x)$ is primeExample of a noetherian domain which is neither Dedekind domain nor UFD?

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If R[x] is a UFD, then R is a UFD.


Give an example of a UFD having a subring which is not a UFD.About the localization of a UFDPerfect Square in an UFDNon-UFD integral domain such that prime is equivalent to irreducible?Show that “In a UFD, if $p$ is irreducible and $pmid a$, then $p$ appears in every factorization of $a$” is falseIf $R$ is a UFD then $R[X,X^-1]$ is a UFDIs any UFD also a PID?True or false: Every Field is a UFD.A simple algebraic ring extension of a UFD having no prime elementsIn a UFD $R$, if $x$ is irreducible, then $(x)$ is primeExample of a noetherian domain which is neither Dedekind domain nor UFD?













0












$begingroup$


I see the statement that if R is UFD then R[x] is a UFD, but is the converse of the statement, which is that if R[x] is a UFD, then R is a UFD, true?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Since $R$ can be viewed as a subring of $R[x]$, it seems obvious.
    $endgroup$
    – Wuestenfux
    Mar 14 at 17:27










  • $begingroup$
    @Wuestenfux Obvious that it is a subring... however it is not useful in showing it’s a ufd...
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Mar 14 at 23:25















0












$begingroup$


I see the statement that if R is UFD then R[x] is a UFD, but is the converse of the statement, which is that if R[x] is a UFD, then R is a UFD, true?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Since $R$ can be viewed as a subring of $R[x]$, it seems obvious.
    $endgroup$
    – Wuestenfux
    Mar 14 at 17:27










  • $begingroup$
    @Wuestenfux Obvious that it is a subring... however it is not useful in showing it’s a ufd...
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Mar 14 at 23:25













0












0








0





$begingroup$


I see the statement that if R is UFD then R[x] is a UFD, but is the converse of the statement, which is that if R[x] is a UFD, then R is a UFD, true?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I see the statement that if R is UFD then R[x] is a UFD, but is the converse of the statement, which is that if R[x] is a UFD, then R is a UFD, true?







abstract-algebra






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 14 at 17:25









user135671user135671

1




1







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Since $R$ can be viewed as a subring of $R[x]$, it seems obvious.
    $endgroup$
    – Wuestenfux
    Mar 14 at 17:27










  • $begingroup$
    @Wuestenfux Obvious that it is a subring... however it is not useful in showing it’s a ufd...
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Mar 14 at 23:25












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Since $R$ can be viewed as a subring of $R[x]$, it seems obvious.
    $endgroup$
    – Wuestenfux
    Mar 14 at 17:27










  • $begingroup$
    @Wuestenfux Obvious that it is a subring... however it is not useful in showing it’s a ufd...
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Mar 14 at 23:25







2




2




$begingroup$
Since $R$ can be viewed as a subring of $R[x]$, it seems obvious.
$endgroup$
– Wuestenfux
Mar 14 at 17:27




$begingroup$
Since $R$ can be viewed as a subring of $R[x]$, it seems obvious.
$endgroup$
– Wuestenfux
Mar 14 at 17:27












$begingroup$
@Wuestenfux Obvious that it is a subring... however it is not useful in showing it’s a ufd...
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
Mar 14 at 23:25




$begingroup$
@Wuestenfux Obvious that it is a subring... however it is not useful in showing it’s a ufd...
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
Mar 14 at 23:25










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

I have written a full proof at the bottom (in case the hint isn't enough).



Hint: Since $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, it is (in particular) an integral domain. Hence degree considerations work -- i.e. we always have equality $deg (fg)=deg f+deg g$, unlike in the general case where
$deg (fg) leq deg f + deg g$.



It follows that whenever we factorize elements of $R$ in $Rlbrack xrbrack$, we actually get (by degree considerations) a factorization in $R$.



Also, elements of $R$ which are irreducible in $Rlbrack xrbrack$ must in particular be irreducible in $R$. This is a fairly straightforward argument, just remember that the units of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ are simply the units of $R$ viewed as constant polynomials.



Addendum. In general, a subring of a UFD need not be a UFD. As mentioned in an answer to this question, the easiest counterexamples are constructed by choosing an integral domain which is not a UFD, then noting that this ring is a subring of its field of fractions (which is trivially a UFD). This is why we need arguments like the one sketched above, which in one way or another use the fact that $Rlbrack xrbrack$ consists of polynomials over $R$.



So that you don't have to take my word for it: There are, of course, many examples of non-UFD integral domains. Trotter observed (in an article cited by Lang) that the well-known identity $cos^2x + sin^2x = 1$ implies the non-unique irreducible factorizations
$$sin^2(x)=(1+cos x)(1-cos x)$$
in the ring of trigonometric polynomials $mathbb R lbrack sin x,cos xrbrack$. Meanwhile, $mathbb R lbrack sin x,cos xrbrack$ is easily seen to be an integral domain.



Here is the promised proof that if $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, then $R$ is a UFD.



Proof. This (simple) proof is divided into three steps. Recall that the units of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ are precisely the units of $R$. Also note that since $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is an integral domain and $Rsubset Rlbrack xrbrack$, then $R$ is an integral domain. Therefore, we just need to show existence and uniqueness of irreducible factorizations in $R$.



Step 1) We claim that $pin R$ is $R$-irreducible (i.e. irreducible as an element of $R$) iff $p$ is $Rlbrack xrbrack$ irreducible. We may assume $pneq 0$. The "if" part is trivial. Indeed, if $p = ab$ for $a,bin R$, then $p = ab$ is also a factorization in $Rlbrack xrbrack$. Hence wlog $a$ must be a unit in $Rlbrack xrbrack$, so also a unit in $R$. As for "only if", suppose $p$ is $R$-irreducible and $p = fg$ is a factorization in $Rlbrack xrbrack$. Then
beginalign*
deg f + deg g = deg p = 0 &Rightarrow deg f = deg g = 0 \
&Rightarrow f,gin R.
endalign*

Hence $p = fg$ is a factorization in $R$, so wlog $f$ is a unit in $R$, thus also a unit in $Rlbrack xrbrack$.



Step 2) If $ain R$, then $a$ has a factorization
beginalignlabelfactors
a = p_1dots p_n tag1
endalign

where $p_i$ is an irreducible element of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ for $i = 1,dots ,n$. As in step 1,
$$
deg p_1 + dots + deg p_n = deg a = 0 Rightarrow p_i in Rquad i = 1,dots ,n.
$$

By step 1, each $p_i$ is therefore $R$-irreducible. Then eqreffactors is an irreducible factorization in $R$.



Step 3) It remains to show uniqueness. Suppose $ain R$ and $p_1,dots ,p_n$ and $q_1,dots ,q_m$ are irreducible elements in $R$ with
beginalignlabeltwofactors
p_1dots p_n = a = q_1dots q_m.tag2
endalign

By step 1), eqreftwofactors gives two $Rlbrack xrbrack$-irreducible factorizations of $a$. But $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, so $m = n$ and there is a permuation $sigma colon lbrace 1,dots ,nrbracerightarrow lbrace 1,dots ,nrbrace$ and units $u_i$ ($i=1,dots ,n$) in $Rlbrack xrbrack$ so that
beginalignlabelperm
p_i = u_iq_sigma (i)quad i=1,dots ,n. tag3
endalign

But $u_i$ is also a unit in $R$, so eqrefperm shows that $p_1dots p_n$ and $q_1dots q_m$ are the same factorization (up to permutation and unit) in $R$. This completes the proof. QED.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    Hint: Suppose otherwise; i.e. there exist an element of $R$ which has distinct prime factorisations ("really" distinct, they're not reorderings/unit multiplications of each other). Then this element is also an element of $R[x]$. All we need to show is that primes in $R$ remain primes when viewed as an element of $R[x]$, and that non-units remain non-units, in order to contradict that $R[x]$ is a UFD.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      oldest

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      active

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      3












      $begingroup$

      I have written a full proof at the bottom (in case the hint isn't enough).



      Hint: Since $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, it is (in particular) an integral domain. Hence degree considerations work -- i.e. we always have equality $deg (fg)=deg f+deg g$, unlike in the general case where
      $deg (fg) leq deg f + deg g$.



      It follows that whenever we factorize elements of $R$ in $Rlbrack xrbrack$, we actually get (by degree considerations) a factorization in $R$.



      Also, elements of $R$ which are irreducible in $Rlbrack xrbrack$ must in particular be irreducible in $R$. This is a fairly straightforward argument, just remember that the units of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ are simply the units of $R$ viewed as constant polynomials.



      Addendum. In general, a subring of a UFD need not be a UFD. As mentioned in an answer to this question, the easiest counterexamples are constructed by choosing an integral domain which is not a UFD, then noting that this ring is a subring of its field of fractions (which is trivially a UFD). This is why we need arguments like the one sketched above, which in one way or another use the fact that $Rlbrack xrbrack$ consists of polynomials over $R$.



      So that you don't have to take my word for it: There are, of course, many examples of non-UFD integral domains. Trotter observed (in an article cited by Lang) that the well-known identity $cos^2x + sin^2x = 1$ implies the non-unique irreducible factorizations
      $$sin^2(x)=(1+cos x)(1-cos x)$$
      in the ring of trigonometric polynomials $mathbb R lbrack sin x,cos xrbrack$. Meanwhile, $mathbb R lbrack sin x,cos xrbrack$ is easily seen to be an integral domain.



      Here is the promised proof that if $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, then $R$ is a UFD.



      Proof. This (simple) proof is divided into three steps. Recall that the units of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ are precisely the units of $R$. Also note that since $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is an integral domain and $Rsubset Rlbrack xrbrack$, then $R$ is an integral domain. Therefore, we just need to show existence and uniqueness of irreducible factorizations in $R$.



      Step 1) We claim that $pin R$ is $R$-irreducible (i.e. irreducible as an element of $R$) iff $p$ is $Rlbrack xrbrack$ irreducible. We may assume $pneq 0$. The "if" part is trivial. Indeed, if $p = ab$ for $a,bin R$, then $p = ab$ is also a factorization in $Rlbrack xrbrack$. Hence wlog $a$ must be a unit in $Rlbrack xrbrack$, so also a unit in $R$. As for "only if", suppose $p$ is $R$-irreducible and $p = fg$ is a factorization in $Rlbrack xrbrack$. Then
      beginalign*
      deg f + deg g = deg p = 0 &Rightarrow deg f = deg g = 0 \
      &Rightarrow f,gin R.
      endalign*

      Hence $p = fg$ is a factorization in $R$, so wlog $f$ is a unit in $R$, thus also a unit in $Rlbrack xrbrack$.



      Step 2) If $ain R$, then $a$ has a factorization
      beginalignlabelfactors
      a = p_1dots p_n tag1
      endalign

      where $p_i$ is an irreducible element of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ for $i = 1,dots ,n$. As in step 1,
      $$
      deg p_1 + dots + deg p_n = deg a = 0 Rightarrow p_i in Rquad i = 1,dots ,n.
      $$

      By step 1, each $p_i$ is therefore $R$-irreducible. Then eqreffactors is an irreducible factorization in $R$.



      Step 3) It remains to show uniqueness. Suppose $ain R$ and $p_1,dots ,p_n$ and $q_1,dots ,q_m$ are irreducible elements in $R$ with
      beginalignlabeltwofactors
      p_1dots p_n = a = q_1dots q_m.tag2
      endalign

      By step 1), eqreftwofactors gives two $Rlbrack xrbrack$-irreducible factorizations of $a$. But $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, so $m = n$ and there is a permuation $sigma colon lbrace 1,dots ,nrbracerightarrow lbrace 1,dots ,nrbrace$ and units $u_i$ ($i=1,dots ,n$) in $Rlbrack xrbrack$ so that
      beginalignlabelperm
      p_i = u_iq_sigma (i)quad i=1,dots ,n. tag3
      endalign

      But $u_i$ is also a unit in $R$, so eqrefperm shows that $p_1dots p_n$ and $q_1dots q_m$ are the same factorization (up to permutation and unit) in $R$. This completes the proof. QED.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$

















        3












        $begingroup$

        I have written a full proof at the bottom (in case the hint isn't enough).



        Hint: Since $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, it is (in particular) an integral domain. Hence degree considerations work -- i.e. we always have equality $deg (fg)=deg f+deg g$, unlike in the general case where
        $deg (fg) leq deg f + deg g$.



        It follows that whenever we factorize elements of $R$ in $Rlbrack xrbrack$, we actually get (by degree considerations) a factorization in $R$.



        Also, elements of $R$ which are irreducible in $Rlbrack xrbrack$ must in particular be irreducible in $R$. This is a fairly straightforward argument, just remember that the units of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ are simply the units of $R$ viewed as constant polynomials.



        Addendum. In general, a subring of a UFD need not be a UFD. As mentioned in an answer to this question, the easiest counterexamples are constructed by choosing an integral domain which is not a UFD, then noting that this ring is a subring of its field of fractions (which is trivially a UFD). This is why we need arguments like the one sketched above, which in one way or another use the fact that $Rlbrack xrbrack$ consists of polynomials over $R$.



        So that you don't have to take my word for it: There are, of course, many examples of non-UFD integral domains. Trotter observed (in an article cited by Lang) that the well-known identity $cos^2x + sin^2x = 1$ implies the non-unique irreducible factorizations
        $$sin^2(x)=(1+cos x)(1-cos x)$$
        in the ring of trigonometric polynomials $mathbb R lbrack sin x,cos xrbrack$. Meanwhile, $mathbb R lbrack sin x,cos xrbrack$ is easily seen to be an integral domain.



        Here is the promised proof that if $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, then $R$ is a UFD.



        Proof. This (simple) proof is divided into three steps. Recall that the units of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ are precisely the units of $R$. Also note that since $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is an integral domain and $Rsubset Rlbrack xrbrack$, then $R$ is an integral domain. Therefore, we just need to show existence and uniqueness of irreducible factorizations in $R$.



        Step 1) We claim that $pin R$ is $R$-irreducible (i.e. irreducible as an element of $R$) iff $p$ is $Rlbrack xrbrack$ irreducible. We may assume $pneq 0$. The "if" part is trivial. Indeed, if $p = ab$ for $a,bin R$, then $p = ab$ is also a factorization in $Rlbrack xrbrack$. Hence wlog $a$ must be a unit in $Rlbrack xrbrack$, so also a unit in $R$. As for "only if", suppose $p$ is $R$-irreducible and $p = fg$ is a factorization in $Rlbrack xrbrack$. Then
        beginalign*
        deg f + deg g = deg p = 0 &Rightarrow deg f = deg g = 0 \
        &Rightarrow f,gin R.
        endalign*

        Hence $p = fg$ is a factorization in $R$, so wlog $f$ is a unit in $R$, thus also a unit in $Rlbrack xrbrack$.



        Step 2) If $ain R$, then $a$ has a factorization
        beginalignlabelfactors
        a = p_1dots p_n tag1
        endalign

        where $p_i$ is an irreducible element of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ for $i = 1,dots ,n$. As in step 1,
        $$
        deg p_1 + dots + deg p_n = deg a = 0 Rightarrow p_i in Rquad i = 1,dots ,n.
        $$

        By step 1, each $p_i$ is therefore $R$-irreducible. Then eqreffactors is an irreducible factorization in $R$.



        Step 3) It remains to show uniqueness. Suppose $ain R$ and $p_1,dots ,p_n$ and $q_1,dots ,q_m$ are irreducible elements in $R$ with
        beginalignlabeltwofactors
        p_1dots p_n = a = q_1dots q_m.tag2
        endalign

        By step 1), eqreftwofactors gives two $Rlbrack xrbrack$-irreducible factorizations of $a$. But $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, so $m = n$ and there is a permuation $sigma colon lbrace 1,dots ,nrbracerightarrow lbrace 1,dots ,nrbrace$ and units $u_i$ ($i=1,dots ,n$) in $Rlbrack xrbrack$ so that
        beginalignlabelperm
        p_i = u_iq_sigma (i)quad i=1,dots ,n. tag3
        endalign

        But $u_i$ is also a unit in $R$, so eqrefperm shows that $p_1dots p_n$ and $q_1dots q_m$ are the same factorization (up to permutation and unit) in $R$. This completes the proof. QED.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$















          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          I have written a full proof at the bottom (in case the hint isn't enough).



          Hint: Since $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, it is (in particular) an integral domain. Hence degree considerations work -- i.e. we always have equality $deg (fg)=deg f+deg g$, unlike in the general case where
          $deg (fg) leq deg f + deg g$.



          It follows that whenever we factorize elements of $R$ in $Rlbrack xrbrack$, we actually get (by degree considerations) a factorization in $R$.



          Also, elements of $R$ which are irreducible in $Rlbrack xrbrack$ must in particular be irreducible in $R$. This is a fairly straightforward argument, just remember that the units of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ are simply the units of $R$ viewed as constant polynomials.



          Addendum. In general, a subring of a UFD need not be a UFD. As mentioned in an answer to this question, the easiest counterexamples are constructed by choosing an integral domain which is not a UFD, then noting that this ring is a subring of its field of fractions (which is trivially a UFD). This is why we need arguments like the one sketched above, which in one way or another use the fact that $Rlbrack xrbrack$ consists of polynomials over $R$.



          So that you don't have to take my word for it: There are, of course, many examples of non-UFD integral domains. Trotter observed (in an article cited by Lang) that the well-known identity $cos^2x + sin^2x = 1$ implies the non-unique irreducible factorizations
          $$sin^2(x)=(1+cos x)(1-cos x)$$
          in the ring of trigonometric polynomials $mathbb R lbrack sin x,cos xrbrack$. Meanwhile, $mathbb R lbrack sin x,cos xrbrack$ is easily seen to be an integral domain.



          Here is the promised proof that if $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, then $R$ is a UFD.



          Proof. This (simple) proof is divided into three steps. Recall that the units of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ are precisely the units of $R$. Also note that since $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is an integral domain and $Rsubset Rlbrack xrbrack$, then $R$ is an integral domain. Therefore, we just need to show existence and uniqueness of irreducible factorizations in $R$.



          Step 1) We claim that $pin R$ is $R$-irreducible (i.e. irreducible as an element of $R$) iff $p$ is $Rlbrack xrbrack$ irreducible. We may assume $pneq 0$. The "if" part is trivial. Indeed, if $p = ab$ for $a,bin R$, then $p = ab$ is also a factorization in $Rlbrack xrbrack$. Hence wlog $a$ must be a unit in $Rlbrack xrbrack$, so also a unit in $R$. As for "only if", suppose $p$ is $R$-irreducible and $p = fg$ is a factorization in $Rlbrack xrbrack$. Then
          beginalign*
          deg f + deg g = deg p = 0 &Rightarrow deg f = deg g = 0 \
          &Rightarrow f,gin R.
          endalign*

          Hence $p = fg$ is a factorization in $R$, so wlog $f$ is a unit in $R$, thus also a unit in $Rlbrack xrbrack$.



          Step 2) If $ain R$, then $a$ has a factorization
          beginalignlabelfactors
          a = p_1dots p_n tag1
          endalign

          where $p_i$ is an irreducible element of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ for $i = 1,dots ,n$. As in step 1,
          $$
          deg p_1 + dots + deg p_n = deg a = 0 Rightarrow p_i in Rquad i = 1,dots ,n.
          $$

          By step 1, each $p_i$ is therefore $R$-irreducible. Then eqreffactors is an irreducible factorization in $R$.



          Step 3) It remains to show uniqueness. Suppose $ain R$ and $p_1,dots ,p_n$ and $q_1,dots ,q_m$ are irreducible elements in $R$ with
          beginalignlabeltwofactors
          p_1dots p_n = a = q_1dots q_m.tag2
          endalign

          By step 1), eqreftwofactors gives two $Rlbrack xrbrack$-irreducible factorizations of $a$. But $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, so $m = n$ and there is a permuation $sigma colon lbrace 1,dots ,nrbracerightarrow lbrace 1,dots ,nrbrace$ and units $u_i$ ($i=1,dots ,n$) in $Rlbrack xrbrack$ so that
          beginalignlabelperm
          p_i = u_iq_sigma (i)quad i=1,dots ,n. tag3
          endalign

          But $u_i$ is also a unit in $R$, so eqrefperm shows that $p_1dots p_n$ and $q_1dots q_m$ are the same factorization (up to permutation and unit) in $R$. This completes the proof. QED.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          I have written a full proof at the bottom (in case the hint isn't enough).



          Hint: Since $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, it is (in particular) an integral domain. Hence degree considerations work -- i.e. we always have equality $deg (fg)=deg f+deg g$, unlike in the general case where
          $deg (fg) leq deg f + deg g$.



          It follows that whenever we factorize elements of $R$ in $Rlbrack xrbrack$, we actually get (by degree considerations) a factorization in $R$.



          Also, elements of $R$ which are irreducible in $Rlbrack xrbrack$ must in particular be irreducible in $R$. This is a fairly straightforward argument, just remember that the units of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ are simply the units of $R$ viewed as constant polynomials.



          Addendum. In general, a subring of a UFD need not be a UFD. As mentioned in an answer to this question, the easiest counterexamples are constructed by choosing an integral domain which is not a UFD, then noting that this ring is a subring of its field of fractions (which is trivially a UFD). This is why we need arguments like the one sketched above, which in one way or another use the fact that $Rlbrack xrbrack$ consists of polynomials over $R$.



          So that you don't have to take my word for it: There are, of course, many examples of non-UFD integral domains. Trotter observed (in an article cited by Lang) that the well-known identity $cos^2x + sin^2x = 1$ implies the non-unique irreducible factorizations
          $$sin^2(x)=(1+cos x)(1-cos x)$$
          in the ring of trigonometric polynomials $mathbb R lbrack sin x,cos xrbrack$. Meanwhile, $mathbb R lbrack sin x,cos xrbrack$ is easily seen to be an integral domain.



          Here is the promised proof that if $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, then $R$ is a UFD.



          Proof. This (simple) proof is divided into three steps. Recall that the units of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ are precisely the units of $R$. Also note that since $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is an integral domain and $Rsubset Rlbrack xrbrack$, then $R$ is an integral domain. Therefore, we just need to show existence and uniqueness of irreducible factorizations in $R$.



          Step 1) We claim that $pin R$ is $R$-irreducible (i.e. irreducible as an element of $R$) iff $p$ is $Rlbrack xrbrack$ irreducible. We may assume $pneq 0$. The "if" part is trivial. Indeed, if $p = ab$ for $a,bin R$, then $p = ab$ is also a factorization in $Rlbrack xrbrack$. Hence wlog $a$ must be a unit in $Rlbrack xrbrack$, so also a unit in $R$. As for "only if", suppose $p$ is $R$-irreducible and $p = fg$ is a factorization in $Rlbrack xrbrack$. Then
          beginalign*
          deg f + deg g = deg p = 0 &Rightarrow deg f = deg g = 0 \
          &Rightarrow f,gin R.
          endalign*

          Hence $p = fg$ is a factorization in $R$, so wlog $f$ is a unit in $R$, thus also a unit in $Rlbrack xrbrack$.



          Step 2) If $ain R$, then $a$ has a factorization
          beginalignlabelfactors
          a = p_1dots p_n tag1
          endalign

          where $p_i$ is an irreducible element of $Rlbrack xrbrack$ for $i = 1,dots ,n$. As in step 1,
          $$
          deg p_1 + dots + deg p_n = deg a = 0 Rightarrow p_i in Rquad i = 1,dots ,n.
          $$

          By step 1, each $p_i$ is therefore $R$-irreducible. Then eqreffactors is an irreducible factorization in $R$.



          Step 3) It remains to show uniqueness. Suppose $ain R$ and $p_1,dots ,p_n$ and $q_1,dots ,q_m$ are irreducible elements in $R$ with
          beginalignlabeltwofactors
          p_1dots p_n = a = q_1dots q_m.tag2
          endalign

          By step 1), eqreftwofactors gives two $Rlbrack xrbrack$-irreducible factorizations of $a$. But $Rlbrack xrbrack$ is a UFD, so $m = n$ and there is a permuation $sigma colon lbrace 1,dots ,nrbracerightarrow lbrace 1,dots ,nrbrace$ and units $u_i$ ($i=1,dots ,n$) in $Rlbrack xrbrack$ so that
          beginalignlabelperm
          p_i = u_iq_sigma (i)quad i=1,dots ,n. tag3
          endalign

          But $u_i$ is also a unit in $R$, so eqrefperm shows that $p_1dots p_n$ and $q_1dots q_m$ are the same factorization (up to permutation and unit) in $R$. This completes the proof. QED.







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          edited Mar 16 at 6:51

























          answered Mar 14 at 18:56









          o.h.o.h.

          6817




          6817





















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              $begingroup$

              Hint: Suppose otherwise; i.e. there exist an element of $R$ which has distinct prime factorisations ("really" distinct, they're not reorderings/unit multiplications of each other). Then this element is also an element of $R[x]$. All we need to show is that primes in $R$ remain primes when viewed as an element of $R[x]$, and that non-units remain non-units, in order to contradict that $R[x]$ is a UFD.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                Hint: Suppose otherwise; i.e. there exist an element of $R$ which has distinct prime factorisations ("really" distinct, they're not reorderings/unit multiplications of each other). Then this element is also an element of $R[x]$. All we need to show is that primes in $R$ remain primes when viewed as an element of $R[x]$, and that non-units remain non-units, in order to contradict that $R[x]$ is a UFD.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Hint: Suppose otherwise; i.e. there exist an element of $R$ which has distinct prime factorisations ("really" distinct, they're not reorderings/unit multiplications of each other). Then this element is also an element of $R[x]$. All we need to show is that primes in $R$ remain primes when viewed as an element of $R[x]$, and that non-units remain non-units, in order to contradict that $R[x]$ is a UFD.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Hint: Suppose otherwise; i.e. there exist an element of $R$ which has distinct prime factorisations ("really" distinct, they're not reorderings/unit multiplications of each other). Then this element is also an element of $R[x]$. All we need to show is that primes in $R$ remain primes when viewed as an element of $R[x]$, and that non-units remain non-units, in order to contradict that $R[x]$ is a UFD.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 16 at 7:22









                  YiFanYiFan

                  4,7531727




                  4,7531727



























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